Question bank

Chapter-1   Tall Trees
Q-1 Fill in the blanks
(a) The poet says many things about the __________.
(b) The tall trees peep at __________.
(c) In the night when everybody is sleeping the __________ shines.
(d) The tall trees with their heads in the sky can see the __________.
Q-2 True Or False
(a) The birds do not go to their nest at dusk.
(b) The tall trees give a place to the birds to rest.
c) The moon comes out when everybody is asleep.
(d) The tall trees can touch the clouds.
Q-3 Answer the following questions.
(a) Who have their feet in the earth and head in the sky?
(b) How do trees help birds?
(c) When does the moon come?
(d) What does the poet say about the tall trees?
Q-4 Use the correct form of the verbs given in the brackets (with or without –s/es).
(a) Lions _______ (live) in jungles. They _______ (kill) other animals for food.
(b) Raja _______ (get up) at six in the morning. He _______ (go) to school at 9.
(c) Mr. Das _______ (teach) us English. We _______ (like) him very much.
(d) I _______ (love) to eat mangoes. But my sister _______ (like) apples.
(e) The sun _______ (give) us light and energy. Plants _______ (use) sunlight to prepare food.
(f) She _______ (want) to play with me. But her mother _______ (refuse) to come to the park.
(g) A computer _______ (help) us to do many kinds of work. It _______ (work) much faster than our brain.
(h) Dogs _______ (bark) at strangers. Sometimes they even _______ at their masters. (bark)
Q-5 Use the correct form of the verb in the bracket
(a) I _______ visited the market with my mother today. (has/have)
(b) The policemen _______ after the thief. (is/are)
(c) She _______ given me the key of the car. (has/have)
(d) We _______ called the manager of the hotel. (has/have)
(e) They _______ very fond of our music. (is/are)
(f) You _______ intelligent enough to get the prize. (are/is)
(g) Metro trains _______ at 60 km per hour. (runs/run)
(h) Elephants _______ long trunks. (has/have)
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The word ‘rest’ in the poem means

(i)

relax

(ii)

sleep

(iii)

sing

(iv)

trunk
Q-2 In the line – ‘With their feet in the earth’, ‘feet’ means

(i)

soil

(ii)

surface

(iii)

stems

(iv)

roots
Q-3 Dusk comes after

(i)

morning

(ii)

night

(iii)

evening

(iv)

afternoon
Q-4 The tall trees shelter the

(i)

nest

(ii)

clouds

(iii)

moon

(iv)

birds
Chapter-2   The Happy Prince
Q-1 Fill in the blanks
(a) The workmen found a _________ inside the statue.
(b) The dead swallow was lying in a heap of _________ .
(c) The statue of the prince was to be replaced with the statue of the _________.
(d) The swallow still lives in the _________ .
(e) The happy prince never wanted to see any _________ thing.
Q-2 True Or False
(a) The swallow and the happy prince were childhood friends.
(b) A drop of tear fell on the head of the swallow
(c) The old woman was happy to get the jewel from the sword of the happy prince.
(d) The match boxes of the young girl got wet due to rain.
(e) God loved the swallow and the happy prince.
Q-3 Answer the following questions.
(a) Why was the prince called the happy prince?
(b) Where was the swallow? What did the swallow see on looking up?
(c) How did the happy prince help the poor woman?
(d) Why did the swallow not go to the warmer place?
(e) What were the two precious things that God ordered the angels to bring?
Q-4 Complete the sentences using the present continuous form of the verbs given in the brackets.
(a) The lion _____________ for the rabbit. (wait)
(b) The mouse _____________ the breads. (eat)
(c) The monkey _____________ on the tree. (sit)
(d) The horses _____________ on the road. (run)
(e) They _____________ to meet the minister today. (go)
(f) He _____________ a ball with him. (carry)
(g) It _____________ to rain tonight. (go)
(h) Ram _____________ for his brother. (look)
Q-5 Rewrite the following sentences in present continuous tense
(a) He goes to the market now.
(b) They sing a beautiful song.
(c) It stands near the door.
(d) People look at the stranger.
(e) We write the examination.
(f) Ram plays a match.
(g) Rashmi comes to see me.
(h) My mother cooks food for me.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The swallow with the members of his family was on

(i)

journey

(ii)

duty

(iii)

migration

(iv)

recreation
Q-2 When the happy prince gave away all the jewels from his body, his body looked

(i)

thick

(ii)

ugly

(iii)

sad

(iv)

thin
Q-3 The inside of the statue of the happy prince had

(i)

jewels

(ii)

stones

(iii)

gold

(iv)

Lead
Q-4 When the swallow died, he was found

(i)

under the prince’s fee

(ii)

in the heap of dust

(iii)

inside the lead of the statue

(iv)

in the garden of paradise
Q-5 The angels brought the ________ of the prince to God.

(i)

stone

(ii)

statue

(iii)

broken heart

(iv)

jewel
Chapter-3   At School
Q-1 True Or False
(a) The maiden was really an angel.
(b) The child finally met an angel.
(c) The child had a limp foot
(d) The chariot was drawn by white horses.
(e) The child could not see as his eyes were filled with dust.
Q-2 Fill in the blanks
(a) The lady on the chariot stared __________ at the child.
(b) The child __________ for breath and rubbed his eyes.
(c) The mother was wearing a blue gingham __________ .
(e) The maiden took the child in her arms and __________ him.
(d) The child was resolute to see an __________ .
Q-3 Answer the following questions.
(a) What did the child want to do in order to find an angel?
(b) Why did the mother accompany her child?
(c) Describe the beautiful lady whom the child saw in the chariot?
(d) What did the lady reply when the child asked her if she was an angel?
(e) Why did the maiden set the child down in haste?
Q-4 Change the following statements to show possession
(a) The hat of the boy.
(b) Natural beauty of India.
(c) The shoes of the boy.
(d) The pencil belongs to Mary
(e) The lion lives in this den.
(f) The pencil of John.
(g) The flag of the country.
(h)The discovery of India
Q-5 Complete each sentence with the correct possessive form of the noun.
(a) (Mrs. Sen) _______________________ sunglasses were lost.
(b) (boy) The _______________________ toy is in the box.
(c) (cousin) My _______________________ hat is dirty.
(d) (Cyrus) _______________________ song is very long.
(e) (child) The _______________________ voice is very loud.
(f) (Pinky) _______________________ dress is beautiful.
(g) (Ajay) _______________________ bag is stolen.
(h) (student) The _______________________ worksheets are completed
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The beautiful maiden’s eyes were like

(i)

diamonds

(ii)

blue stars

(iii)

gems

(iv)

Jewels
Q-2 The meaning of ‘tenderly’ in the lesson means

(i)

calmly

(ii)

quietly

(iii)

softly

(iv)

easily
Q-3 The other meaning of ‘sobbed’ is

(i)

shouted

(ii)

cried

(iii)

talked

(iv)

laughed
Q-4 The child put his arms round his mother’s neck, and she held him

(i)

tight

(ii)

better

(iii)

loose

(iv)

smooth
Q-5 The mother said to her child that she came with him just to

(i)

carry him home

(ii)

see an angel

(iii)

find an angel

(iv)

know an angel
Chapter-4   The Love-Apples
Q-1 Fill in the blanks
(a) The birds did not seem to be at all afraid of the __________ fruit.
(b) A pedlar would come to the farm once a month, bringing buttons and __________ .
(c) The pedlar drew out a very small __________ and handed it to mother.
(d) Grandma said that she was a big girl before she __________ tomato.
(e) When the uncle found that they were afraid to eat tomatoes, he had a hearty __________ .
Q-2 True Or False
(a) The love-apples were poisonous fruits.
(b) Mother planted the seeds in the garden.
(c) The flowers of the love-apple vines are small, but the fruit is bright red.
(d) The mother pulled out the love-apple vines when the children tried to taste the fruits.
(e) The pedlar got the seeds from China.
Q-3 Answer the following questions.
(a) What was grandma saying to Johnny in the story?
(b) What did the pedlar use to carry?
(c) What seeds did the pedlar give to the mother? Where did he get those seeds?
(d) What did the pedlar warn the mother about the seeds?
(e) What happened when the mother planted the seeds?
Q-4

Choose the correct reflexive pronouns from the box to complete the sentences.

(a) My brother made this T-shirt _______________.

(b) We helped _______________ to get to the park.

(c) Did you take all the photos by _______________ ?

(d) My mother often talks to _______________ .

(e) Amal and Kajal collected the stickers _______________ .

(f) The lion can defend _______________ .

Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 He used to carry seeds and cuttings of plants from one farmer’s wife to the

(i)

next

(ii)

other

(iii)

market

(iv)

shop
Q-2 Grandma said that she never saw a tomato until the age of

(i)

ten

(ii)

eleven

(iii)

twelve

(iv)

thirteen
Q-3 The pedlar gave half of the seeds of love-apple to his

(i)

brother

(ii)

sister

(iii)

mother

(iv)

wife
Q-4 It was thought in the beginning that tomatoes were

(i)

sweet

(ii)

sour

(iii)

poisonous

(iv)

bitter
Q-5 The pedlar had a big __________ wagon.

(i)

blue

(ii)

green

(iii)

red

(iv)

orange
Chapter-5   The Dancing Princess
Q-1 Fill in the blanks
(b) When they reached the shore, the princesses bade goodbye to their_______ .
(c) The king was ________ with the action of the soldier.
(d) The soldier chose the ________ princess in marriage.
(e) When the eldest princess gave a glass of wine, the soldier ________ to drink and fall asleep.
(a) The seven princesses went inside a ________ and began to dance.
Q-2 True Or False
(a) The prince succeeded in knowing about the worn-out shoes of the princesses.
(b) The old woman gave a magical cloak to the soldier.
(c) After walking a little distance, the soldier saw a wide river.
(d) Nobody could see the prince when he got up on the boat.
(e) The princesses danced the whole night until their shoes were worn out.
Q-3 Answer the following questions.
(a) Why was the king very much disturbed?
(b) What notice did the king send?
(c) Why did the king ask the prince to leave?
(d) What advice did the old woman give to the soldier?
(e) What did the soldier see at the bottom of the stairs?
Q-4 Choose the correct form of the verb in past continuous tense.
(a) I (was walking / were walking) through the Ring Road.
(b) He (were playing / was playing) tennis until four o’ clock.
(c) You (was watching / were watching) the sunset last night.
(d) They (was staying / were staying) at the same hotel last year.
(e) She (was planting / were planting) the garden on May 15th.
(f) It (were barking / was barking) loudly at the stranger.
g) We (were swimming / was swimming) a lot during the summer.
(h) Roma (were shopping / was shopping) all day yesterday.
Q-5 Complete the sentences with the past continuous form of the verbs in the brackets.
(a) The Maths teacher ___________ (explain) an exercise.
(b) Tom ___________ (not do) the exercise.
(c) Mary ___________ (pay) attention in the class.
(d) I saw that two people ___________ (talk)
(e) Lucky ___________ (study) History.
(f) The aeroplane ___________ (not land) on the ground.
(g) They ___________ (water) the flowers.
(h) It ___________ (rain) yesterday night.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The soldier ________ what the old woman had said.

(i)

learnt

(ii)

thought

(iii)

remembered

(iv)

read
Q-2 The beautiful trees at the bottom of the stars had

(i)

golden leaves

(ii)

silver leaves

(iii)

pink leaves

(iv)

diamond leaves
Q-3 There were seven boats with seven princes, one in

(i)

every boat

(ii)

each boat

(iii)

all boat

(iv)

equal boat
Q-4 Each princess got into the boat and ________ away.

(i)

marched

(ii)

walked

(iii)

ran

(iv)

sailed
Q-5 The soldier showed the king

(i)

leaves

(ii)

princess

(iii)

stairs

(iv)

tree twings
Chapter-6   I Wonder Why
Q-1 Fill in the blanks
(a) The poet considers that wind is never ______________ .
(b) Like human beings, the trees also take ______________.
(c) The moon keeps on changing its ______________ .
(d) The clouds hang in the ______________.
Q-2 True Or False
(a) The poet knows who has taught the birds to build a nest.
(b) The grass is not always green in colour.
(c) The colours of the rainbow in the sky are not painted by the poet.
(d) The poet thinks the answers to all his questions are known to his dad.
Q-3 Answer the following questions.
(a) Does the poet know why the colour of the grass is green?
(b) Write the names of two heavenly bodies mentioned in the poem?
(c) What three things does the poet want to know about?
(d) What do you think of the poet from your reading the poem?
Q-4 Complete the sentences using ‘There is’ or ‘There are’
(a) ________ many cars in the street.
(b) ________ a picture on the wall
(c) ________ seven apples in the fridge.
(d) ________ a pencil near the book.
(e) ________ many trees in the forest.
(f) ________ a monkey on the tree.
(g) ________ books on the table.
(h) ________ many rooms in my house.
Q-5 Complete the questions using ‘Is there’ or ‘Are there’
(a) ______________a lamp on the bedside table?
(b) ______________a wardrobe in the room?
(c) ______________chairs in the room?
(d) ______________pictures on the wall?
(e) ______________pillows on the bed?
(f) ______________a computer in the room?
(g) ______________clothes in the wardrobe?
(h) ______________a drawer under the bed?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The poet is full of

(i)

curiosity

(ii)

madness

(iii)

dullness

(iv)

knowledge
Q-2 During rain we can see ______________ in the sky.

(i)

animal

(ii)

thunder

(iii)

lightning

(iv)

river
Q-3 The meaning of ‘fluffy’ in the poem is

(i)

ugly

(ii)

woolly

(iii)

big

(iv)

colourful
Q-4 The lightning ______________ in the sky.

(i)

looks

(ii)

sees

(iii)

flashes

(iv)

walks
Chapter-7   Little Sunshine
Q-1 Fill in the blanks
(a) Little Sunshine laughed _______ and took the flax into her own room.
(b) Every morning she rode through the streets in her gold ________ .
(c) Little Sunshine tied her apron about the bear’s eyes to ________ him.
(d) She offered the mouse a bit of the fat with which she greased her ________ .
(e) The prince gave them twelve wagonloads of grain and twelve ________ .
Q-2 True Or False
(a) The man and the woman lived in a little hut near the river.
(b) The mother taught Little Sunshine to bake, sew and spin.
(c) People came from miles around to see the little girl’s smile.
(d) “Little Sunshine must learn to work alone, or she will grow up a lazy girl,” said the man.
(e) There were no paths to the forest and the trees had grown together like a wall.
Q-3 Answer the following questions.
(a) What work did the man and the woman do to keep themselves busy?
(b) Why did nobody dare to chop wood from that forest?
(c) Why was the little baby named Little Sunshine?
(d) What did Little Sunshine’s mother teach her?
(e) Who was the bear in reality?
Q-4 Write ‘because’ or ‘so’ to complete the sentences.
(a) It was cold, __________ I shut the window.
(b) The door was open, __________ I closed it.
(c) She doesn’t like him, __________ he isn’t honest.
(d) It was raining, __________ I took a taxi.
(e) The water wasn’t clean, __________ we didn’t swim.
(f) We didn’t swim __________ the water wasn’t clean.
(g) I’ll be home late tonight __________ I have to work late.
(h) I’m tired today __________ I couldn’t sleep last night.
Q-5 Join each pair of sentences by using either ‘because’ or ‘so’
(a) I closed the window. It was cold.
(b) We walked home. There were no more buses.
(c) She quit her job. She is looking for a new one now.
(d) I’m tired today. I couldn’t sleep last night.
(e) I’ll be home late tonight. I have to work late.
(f) We didn’t swim. The water wasn’t clean.
(g) The water wasn’t clean. We didn’t swim.
(h) It was raining. I took a taxi.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 There were other people living near them who worked in the

(i)

farm

(ii)

fields

(iii)

hut

(iv)

village
Q-2 The little girl was the most ________ baby.

(i)

wonderful

(ii)

beautiful

(iii)

cute

(iv)

amazing
Q-3 The mother wanted Little Sunshine to be

(i)

lazy

(ii)

busy

(iii)

industries

(iv)

sturdy
Q-4 The mouse asked Little Sunshine to give him something to

(i)

do

(ii)

eat

(iii)

play

(iv)

work
Q-5 Little Sunshine tied her apron about the bear’s eyes to

(i)

blind him

(ii)

tease him

(iii)

catch him

(iv)

move him
Chapter-8   Hansel and Gretel
Q-1 Fill in the blanks
(a) The birds of the forest had eaten the _________.
(b) The two children _________ the woodcutter when they saw him in the forest.
(c) They stayed some more days and ate the pieces of _________.
(d) One day, the witch was tired of _________.
(e) When the witch went to touch his finger, Hansel held out the _________ bone
Q-2 True Or False
(a) Hansel and Gretel were brother and sister.
(b) The bread-crumbs were eaten by the witch.
(c) The strange cottage was made of chocolate.
(d) Hansel and Gretel had a mean stepmother.
(e) The witch locked up Hansel in a cage.
Q-3 Answer the following questions.
(a) Who lives in the small cottage?
(b) What do they see in the forest?
(c) Where do Hansel and Gretel get lost?
(d) Whom does the witch try to eat first?
(e) What happens to the witch?
Q-4 Fill in the blanks with the suitable forms of the verbs in the brackets.
(a) My maid _________ her work honestly. (do)
(b) The wind _________ throughout the night. (blow)
(c) A mango _________ on his head. (drop)
(d) The princess’ golden ball _________ into the well. (roll)
(e) A frog _________ into the well and ________ it back to her. (jump, bring)
(f) My dog _________ at night. (bark)
(g) The party _________ at 9 pm. (begin)
(h) He _________ his old scooter and _________ a new car. (sell, buy)
Q-5 Choose the suitable verbs from the brackets and complete the following sentences.
(a) The sun (awoke/rose/raised) in the sky.
(b) The wind (flew/blew/moved) strongly.
(c) The maid (lain/lay/laid) the table.
(d) A log (floats/soaks/flows) on water
(e) Ducks (caw/cackle/quack) in the pond.
(f) Donkeys (bray/pray/spray) when they are hungry.
(g) Rohit did not (give/return/back) the money.
(h) The stone (drops/falls/floats) in the water.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The poor woodcutter lived in a _________ in the forest alone.

(i)

house

(ii)

little hut

(iii)

tiny cottage

(iv)

big house
Q-2 Hansel and Gretel had a stepmother who

(i)

did not like them

(ii)

did not love them

(iii)

did not care them

(iv)

did not feed them
Q-3 The house of the witch was made of

(i)

butter

(ii)

cake

(iii)

chocolate

(iv)

honey
Q-4 The old woman said to Hansel and Gretel that they should

(i)

listen to her always

(ii)

not miss their home

(iii)

not be afraid

(iv)

remember her words
Q-5 When their father left them in the forest, they wanted to

(i)

flee from there

(ii)

stay there

(iii)

get something to eat

(iv)

go back home
Chapter-9   Prometheus
Q-1 True Or False
(a) Prometheus brought fire for the people from Jupiter.
(b) Men were the most miserable of all living creatures.
(c) Jupiter went to the glowing sun, took sparks of fire and brought them hidden in the hollow of a reed to the earth.
(d) Prometheus was determined to help mankind.
(e) Hercules broke the fetters of Prometheus and set him free.
Q-2 Fill in the blanks
(a) The storm-winds always blew around _________.
(b) Prometheus taught them, little by little, a _________ things.
(c) He called some of the shivering men from their caves and built a _________ for them.
(d) Mankind shall have fire in spite of the cruel king who sits on the _________ top.
(e) He grew sad when he found that they were poor, _________ and unhappy.
Q-3 Answer the following questions.
(a) How was Prometheus different from other gods?
(b) Why did Jupiter refuse to give fire to men?
(c) How did Prometheus bring fire to the earth?
(d) How did Jupiter punish Prometheus?
(e) Who were Prometheus’ friends while he was in bondage? How did they help him?
Q-4 Choose the correct verb to fill in the blank.
(a) The moon _________ around the Earth. (move/moves)
(b) Mars _________ a red planet. (is/are)
(c) The children _________when they see a comet. (shout/shouts)
(d) Pollution _________ a great menace. (is/are)
(e) Jupiter and Saturn _________ dense atmosphere. (has/have)
(f) Everyone _________ that stars are made of gases. (know/knows)
(g) Jupiter _________ the largest planet. (is/are)
(h) The sun _________ light to the planets. (gives/give)
Q-5

Underline the correct verb in each sentence.

(a) There (is, are) twenty students in the room.

(b) Neither my brothers nor my father (is, are) present here.

(c) The books on the table (belong, belongs) to John.

(d) Each of my sisters (wear, wears) a jacket.

(e) The people at the back of the stage (was, were) making too much noise.

Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The meaning of ‘Prometheus’ is

(i)

amazing

(ii)

believing

(iii)

very promising

(iv)

forethought
Q-2 Prometheus was freed from bondage by

(i)

jupiter

(ii)

helios

(iii)

Hercules

(iv)

Athena
Q-3 When humans mastered the use of fire and other ways of improving their life, Prometheus called it

(i)

the Age of Water

(ii)

the Age of Fire

(iii)

the new Golden Age

(iv)

the Age of Man
Q-4 It seemed to Prometheus that men were

(i)

poor and unhappy

(ii)

poor, wretched and unhappy

(iii)

poor and wretched but happy

(iv)

living in comfort
Q-5 (e) Prometheus begged Jupiter to give fire to men so as to allow them

(i)

to lead a civilized life

(ii)

to be equal to gods

(iii)

to warm themselves in winter

(iv)

to play with fire
Chapter-10   Alphabetical Order .
Q-1

Rearrange these words in alphabetical order and write them in the blanks.
Chapter-11   Sentences and Their Kinds
Q-1 Write C for complete sentences and I for incomplete sentences.
(a) I can walk five miles a day.
(b) Nobody can read a poem.
(c) The Principal is work.
(d) Do your duty.
(e) Strong and hard.
(f) You face difficulty in solving sums.
(g) Slow and steady.
(h) Sunday is a holiday.
(i) The Himalayas mountain.
(j) He loves to eat.
Q-2 State the kinds of the following sentences (assertive, interrogative, imperative, optative, or exclamatory.tory).
(a) Add the milk to the dry ingredients slowly.
(b) Who was the first female astronaut?
(c) Buckle your seatbelt even for short trips.
(d) Please put the stamped envelopes in this box.
(e) You must be joking.
(f) May God fulfil all your dreams.
(g) In 1776, there were fifty-three newspapers in London.
(h) Who were the first people to use paper money?
Q-3 Fill in the blanks with the negative words.
(a) I do _____________watch TV.
(b) There is _____________ to eat at home.
(c) _____________ came to attend the function.
(d) There are _____________ boys in the classroom.
(e) He does _____________ speak in English.
(f) I do _____________ use a pencil.
(g) We have _____________ to give you.
(h) We do _____________ play football.
(i) There is _____________ sign of hope now.
(j) Ram is _____________ going to the market.
Q-4 Make affirmative or negative sentences with these jumbled words.
(a) is he new now singing song a
(b) I like do not Mondays
(c) cats usually night at do not sleep
(d) the to computer goes on Tuesday she seldom afternoon lab
(e) late do stay up on weekdays mum and dad not
(f) to the car the is reporter running
(g) play does my tennis not friend
(h) grandmother goes his never skanting
(i) boys cannot two see I
(j) always the has in kitchen breakfast Jack
Q-5

Encircle the subject and underline the predicate in each of the following sentences.

(a) Miss Williams is going to New York tomorrow.

(b) Your gloves are certainly dirty.

(c) Anne's question surprised me.

(d) Coronavirus causes infectious disease.

(e) Sania has played eighteen matches so far.

Q-6

Write a subject to complete each sentence.

(a) ______________________ looked for nectar in the flower.

(b) ______________________ has lots of clothes in it.

(c) ______________________ checked my vision.

(d) ______________________ needs soil, water and sunlight.

(e) ______________________ landed in the UFO.

Q-7

Write a predicate to complete each sentence.

(a) The gardener .____________________________________________

(b) The pilot .____________________________________________

(c) The little puppy ____________________________________________________

(d) The barber .____________________________________________.

(e) James' baby sister .____________________________________________.

Chapter-12   Nouns.
Q-1 Write the kinds of the nouns.
(a) truth
(b) honesty
(c) king
(d) Rashmi
(e) group
(f) godliness
(g) ships
(h) bunch
(i) London
(j) wisdom
Q-2 State whether the nouns in the following sentences are common, proper, collective or abstract.
(a) Honesty is the best policy.
(b) Solomon was famous for his wisdom.
(c) A committee of five was appointed.
(d) James is a bright student.
(e) Wisdom is beer than riches.
(f) I didn't believe the girl's story.
(g) A teacher must have patience.
(h) Cleanliness is next to godliness.
Q-3 Form abstract nouns from the following nouns.
(a) Brother ______________
(b) Scholar ______________
(c) King ______________
(d) Mother ______________
(e) Friend ______________
(f) Child ______________
Q-4 Form abstract nouns from the following adjectives.
(a) Angry ______________
(b) Hungry ______________
(c) Wise ______________
(d) Thirsty ______________
(e) Honest ______________
(f) Different ______________
(g) Able ______________
(h) Pleased ______________
Q-5 Form nouns from the highlighted words in the sentences and write in the blanks.
(a) Reema can dance. She is a ______________.
(b) Mr. Das teaches English. He is a ______________.
(c) M F Hussain painted pictures. He was a ______________.
(d) The man rides a horse. He is a ______________.
(e) Lata singswell. She is a ______________.
(f) God created the universe. He is the ______________.
(g) Salman acts in films. He is an ______________.
(h) He works in a farm. He is a ______________.
Q-6

Form abstract nouns from the following verbs.

(a) Act ______________

(b) Laugh______________ 

(c) Marry ______________

(d) Free______________ 

(e) Grow ______________

Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Which of the following is a common noun ?

(i)

London

(ii)

Samsung

(iii)

Birds

(iv)

Iron
Q-2 Which of the following is a proper noun?

(i)

Milk

(ii)

Sister

(iii)

Nitin

(iv)

Singer
Q-3 Which of the following is not an abstract noun ?

(i)

Bravery

(ii)

Goodness

(iii)

Family

(iv)

Family
Q-4 Which of the following is not a countable noun?

(i)

Books

(ii)

Gold

(iii)

Horse

(iv)

Horse
Q-5 A man is known by the company he keeps. Which is the abstract noun here?

(i)

Known

(ii)

Man

(iii)

Company

(iv)

Keeps
Q-6 I saw a bunch of grapes. Here, bunch is a ___________ noun.

(i)

material

(ii)

Collective

(iii)

Proper

(iv)

common
Chapter-13   Common and Proper Nouns
Q-1 Think of a proper noun for each common noun.
(a) woman
(b) mountain
(c) book
(d) monument
(e) holiday
(f) day
Q-2

Underline the common noun and encircle the proper noun in each sentence.

(a) Ajit went to the market to buy vegetables.

(b) Rahul left his cricket kit at my house.

(c) My brother is a well-known artist.

(d) Akbar was a great emperor.

(e) We went to see the Dal Lake during vacation.

Chapter-14   Collective Nouns
Q-1 Fill in the blanks
(a) The ___________ of wolves was hungry.
(b) The ___________ of cows grazed in the meadow.
(c) He gave the monkey a ___________ of bananas.
(d) A ___________ of bees was chasing me.
(e) My cat had a ___________ of ki
(f) There are some old and rare photographs in the ___________.
(g) A􀅌er the event was over, the ___________ vacated the venue.
Q-2 Read and pick the collective nouns.
(a) The audience was clapping loudly.
(b) An army of ants races to the crumbs.
(c) This group of students is working very hard.
(d) There were four beautiful puppies in the litter.
(e) The family went away on vacation.
(f) I was scared of the swarm of bees.
(g) They ran in like a herd of elephants.
(h) Mr. Smith is the head of the art committee.
Q-3 Match the collective noun to the noun it goes with.
Q-4

Fill in the blanks.

(a) a __________ of bees

(b) a __________ of ships

(c) a __________ of arrows

(d) a __________ of lions

(e) a __________ of fish

(f) a __________ of puppies

Chapter-15   Countable and Uncountable Nouns
Q-1 Write C for countable nouns and U for uncountable nouns.
(a) Oil
Flour
Honey
Eggs
Chocolate
Onions
Paper
Sugar
Cheese
Salt
Meat
Lemons
Q-2

Write if the underlined nouns in the sentences are countable or uncountable.

(a) The children are playing in the garden. ____________

(b) Scientists say that environment is threatened by pollution.   __________________

(c) My mother uses butter to prepare cakes. __________________

(d) There are many windows in our classroom.

(e) We need some glue to fix this vase. ____________

(f) The waiters in this restaurant are very professional. ____________

Chapter-16   Nouns: Number
Q-1 Write the plural form of the word given in the brackets.
(a) I can see two _____________ in the fish tank. (fish)
(b) How many _____________ are there in the school yard? (child)
(c) We still need three more forks and ___________for our dinner guests. (knife)
(d) Many trees lose their _____________ in the fall. (leaf)
(e) Many _____________ live in the park .(deer)
(f) Sharks can grow thousands of _____________ in a lifetime. (tooth)
(g) Cats like to catch _____________. (mouse)
Q-2 Complete each sentence using singular or plural noun of your choice.
(a) There were two _____________ playing in the yard.
(b) Anurag is my _____________.
(c) There are _____________ in the kitchen.
(d) We bought fresh _____________ from the farmer.
(e) The _____________ hit a tree.
(f) The _____________ gave a loud roar.
(g) I had one _____________ for the breakfast.
Q-3 Rewrite each sentence by wring the plural form of the noun given in bold.
(a) The wolf chased the sheep.
(b) Put the book on the shelf.
(c) The policeman ran after the thief.
(d) The chief of the army got ready for a war.
(e) The lady took out the key from the purse and opened the lock.
(f) The child flew a kite.
(g) The doctor pulled out the aching teeth.
Q-4 Rewrite each sentence by wring the singular form of the nouns given in bold.
(a) The leaves fell from the trees.
(b) The women sat on the benches.
(c) The thieves had knives.
(d) The heroes rode black horses.
(e) She put the roses in the vases.
(f) The foxes ate acorns.
(g) The bushes at the corner hid the huts.
Q-5

Underline the noun and write ‘S’ if it is singular or ‘P’ if it is plural.

(a) Where is my book ? _________________

(b) Your shoes are red. _________________

(c) Clean your room. _________________

(d) Can you walk the dog? _________________

(e) Put your clothes away. _________________

Chapter-17   Place Value
Q-1 Match the following:
Q-2 Write the following numbers in words:
(a) 89,456
(b) 34,372
(c) 4,67,030
(d) 3,70,371
Q-3 Put the sign ‘<’ or ‘>’ in the box :
(a) 37,824( ) 47,059
(b) 42,670 ( ) 42,770
(c) 2,52,468 ( ) 78,876
(d) 27,943 ( ) 5,38,732
Q-4 Arrange the numbers in ascending order :
(a) 30,992; 30,999; 23,902; 30,939
(b) 40,196; 42,961; 14,961; 4,961
(c) 68,391; 98,631; 68,139; 86,319
(d) 2,48,396; 94,846; 98,346; 89,463
Q-5 Arrange the numbers in descending order :
(a) 5,396; 4,639; 3,496; 5,693
(b) 69,032; 9,62,023; 3,23,216; 6,242
(c) 9,90,876; 7,90,866; 7,76,690; 9,80,776
(d) 9,816; 7,89,032; 1,00,000; 1,00,100
(e) 46,931; 98,436; 5,10, 482; 8,20,913
Q-6

Write the following numbers in words:

(a) 89,456

(b) 34,372

(c) 4,67,030

(d) 3,70,371

Q-7

Write these numbers in figures. While writing numbers don’t forget to put commas at proper places :

(a) Thirty-nine thousand five   ____________________ 

(b) Forty-four thousand seven hundred sixty-seven

(c) Seventy thousand six hundred ninety-five

(d) Seven lakh eight thousand fifty-six

(e) Ten lakh six hundred eighty-two

Q-8

Write the following numbers in standard numeral form:

(a) 50,000 + 6,000 + 900 + 70 + 5 = _______________

(b) 30,000 + 5,000 + 700 + 30 + 1 = _______________

(c) 40,000 + 700 + 50 + 3 = _______________

(d) 2,00,000 + 20,000 + 40 + 2 = _______________

Q-9

Write the expanded form for each of the following:

(a) 73,875

(b) 64,098

(c) 30,770

(d) 5,25,684

Q-10

Write the place value of the underlined digit in each of the following:

(a) 7, 1 2 6

(b) 5, 6 12

(c) 3 ,490

(d) 7 4 , 782

(e) 18, 7 63

Q-11

Complete the series by counting in tens :
Q-12

Complete the series by counting in ten thousands :
Q-13

Find the sum of the place values of 6 in each of the following :

(a) 4,676

(b) 68,666

(c) 66,987

(d) 69,146

Q-14

Put the sign ‘<’ or ‘>’ in the box :

(a) 37,824 _______ 47,059

(b) 42,670 _______ 42,770

(c) 2,52,468 ______ 78,876

(d) 27,943 ______ 5,38,732

Q-15

Arrange the numbers in ascending order :

(a) 30,992; 30,999; 23,902; 30,939 _______________________________

(b) 40,196; 42,961; 14,961; 4,961 _______________________________

(c) 68,391; 98,631; 68,139; 86,319 _______________________________

(d) 2,48,396; 94,846; 98,346; 89,463 _______________________________

Q-16

Arrange the numbers in descending order :

(a) 5,396; 4,639; 3,496; 5,693 _______________________________

(b) 69,032; 9,62,023; 3,23,216; 6,242 _______________________________

(c) 9,90,876; 7,90,866; 7,76,690; 9,80,776 _______________________________

(d) 9,816; 7,89,032; 1,00,000; 1,00,100 _______________________________

(e) 46,931; 98,436; 5,10, 482; 8,20,913 _______________________________

Q-17

Do as directed :

(a) Write the greatest 4-digit number formed by 6,7,8,2, __________________

(b) Write the smallest 6-digit number formed by 4,5,8,0,2,6 __________________

(c) Write the greatest 6-digit number formed by 4,0,6,1,8,5 __________________

(d) Write the smallest 5-digit number formed by 2,9,1,4,7 __________________

Q-18

Round off these numbers to nearest 10 :

(a) 74 

(b) 85

(c) 341

(d) 659

(e) 579

Q-19

Round off these numbers to nearest 100 :

(a) 752

(b) 5,207

(c) 4,650

(d) 9,417

(e) 85

Q-20

Round off these numbers to nearest 1000 :

(a) 8,419

(b) 7,500

(c) 932

(d) 7,095

(e) 68,199

Q-21

Write the value for each of these Roman numerals in Hindu-Arabic numbers :

(a) XVIII

(b) XXX

(c) XL

(d) XXIX

Q-22

Write the value for each of these numbers in Roman numerals :

(a) 19

(b) 25

(c) 33

(d) 48

(e) 50

Q-23

Write the number before and after :

(a) ______ XIX ______

(b) ______ XXXIX ______

(c) ______ XL ______

(d) ______ XC ______

Q-24

Fill in the blanks with ‘>’, ‘<’ or ‘=’ :

(a) IV _____ VI

(b) XVIII _____ XV

(c) XXX _____ XXIX

(d) XXXIX _____ XXXII

Q-25

Express the differences in Roman numerals. One has been done for you.

(a) 23 – 16 = 

(b) 35 – 15 =

(c) 16 – 7 =

(d) 56 – 26 =

(e) 9 – 5 =

Chapter-18   Addition and Subtraction
Q-1 Add,
(a) 6531+293 =
(b) 4321+327 =
(c) 9836+4322 =
(d) 2104 +5372 =
(e) 1539 +2010 =
Q-2 Subtract the following .
(a) 2,903 and 1,799
(b) 5,807 and 2,378
(c) 5,932 and 2,874
(d) 43,758 and 35,194
(e) 8,004 and 3,261
(f) 60,008 and 23,986
Q-3 Numericals..
(a) In a forest, the number of animals are 98,849. The number of herbivores are 68,435. Find the number of carnivores?
(b) In a forest, the total number of tigers and panthers are 1039. If the number of tigers are 898 then find the number of panthers?
(c) In year 1999, the number of deer in the forest were 48,326. Whereas in the year 2009, the number reduced to 36,588 due to over-hunting. Find the reduced number of deer in these 10 years?
(d) There were 94,447 deodar trees in a forest. Due to illegal cutting the number of deodars were reduced to 86,498. How many deodar trees were cut by people illegally?
(e) The total number of monkeys in the forest are 12,788. Within a few months, more monkeys are going to be added by forest department. After addition, the number of monkeys will become 16,822. Find the number of monkeys going to be added.
(f) The population of elephants in the forest is 2,382, in which 1,046 are female elephants. Find the number of male elephants in the forest?
Q-4 Solve the following using compensation
(a) 21 + 53
(b) 49 + 36
(c) 54 + 32
(d) 532 + 208
(e) 498 + 202
(f) 589 + 361
(g) 501 – 209
(h) 329 – 159
Q-5 Find out a pattern and write next three numbers.
(a) 5, 10, 15, 20, ____, ____, ____
(b) 11, 22, 33, 44, ____, ____, ____
(c) 66, 60, 54, 48, ____, ____, ____
(d) 5, 9, 13, 17, ____, ____, ____
Q-6 Numericals
1. You have ` 1500. You want to buy a T-shirt for ` 499. and jeans for ` 720 but you don’t want to buy trousers for ` 890. How much money will you have to spend ?
2. In a cinema hall 5,000 people can sit. One day there were 4,829 people of which 1,869 were women. How many were men.
3. An airline charges ` 1049 for an adult and ` 679 for a child from Delhi to Agra. For a family package they charge ` 2550. If Mr. Ashish bought ticket for himself and his 8 year old son and gave ` 3000 to the ticketer, how much money did he get back?
4. There were 59,200 people living in Rajnagar and 48,990 people in Ramesh Nagar. After the earthquake in Rajnagar only 11,480 people were there. Find out the number of missing people.
5. A milk dairy produced 60,000 pouches of milk and 5,000 pouches of ghee everyday. It supplies 55,298 milk pouches a day to various depots. How many pouches of milk are not sold ?
Q-7

Add, estimate and check if your answer makes sense :
Q-8

Add the following :

(a) 22,456 and 74,321

(b) 54,321 and 35,413

(c) 22,645 and 4,006

(d) 55,104 and 10,312

(e) 19,527 and 39,349

Q-9

Solve the following :

(a) Mr. Arora bought a computer worth ₹ 22,000 and a printer worth ₹ 11,857. Find how much money did he spend in all ?

(b) Mr. Arora’s income in March, 2009 was ₹ 32,450. Next month he got ₹ 36,740 as his income. How much did he earn in these two months?

(c) They visited an art exhibition. On Saturday 14,227 people visited and on Sunday 21,456. How many people visited the exhibition on both the days together.

(d) The school library of Mr. Arora’s son had 46,808 books. In the coming year, 9,732 new books are going to be added. Find the number of the books after addition.

(e) The annual school fee of his daughter is ₹ 6,490. His son’s school fee is ₹ 2,005 more than that. How much total school fee does he pay for his son and his daughter?

Q-10

Subtract, estimate to check if your answer makes sense :
Q-11

Subtract the following :

(a) 2,903 and 1,799

(b) 5,807 and 2,378

(c) 5,932 and 2,874

(d) 43,758 and 35,194

(e) 8,004 and 3,261

Q-12

Subtract and check your answer:
Q-13

Solve the following using a shortcut method:

(a) 6,000 – 4,837

(b) 9,000 – 5,836

(c) 7,004 – 3,298

(d) 84,000 – 59,832

(e) 74,000 – 43,265

Q-14

Solve the following using compensation :

(a) 21 + 53

(b) 49 + 36

(c) 54 + 32

(d) 532 + 208

(e) 498 + 202

Q-15

Solve quickly :

(a) 3,241 + 99 =

(b) 123 + 99 + 98 =

(c) 1,248 + 992 =

(d) 128 + 103 =

(e) 45 + ______ = 135

Q-16

Find the total money due in each bill. What was the amount received as change in each case ?
Q-17

Make up the given amounts by using the least possible number of coins and notes:
Q-18

How can you make ₹ 128 using more of the higher value notes?
Q-19

Solve the following:

(a) Amrita had four 50-rupees notes and a two 100-rupees notes. She purchased a suit for ₹ 260. Calculate the money left with her after the purchase

(b) Naman has lost ₹ 237.00 in the market. He is now left with ₹ 352.00. How much money did he initially have ?

(c) Pranay had ₹ 2085.00 in his bank account. He withdraw from his account ₹ 999.00. How much money is left in his account?

(d) The cost of a video game set is ₹ 3429.50 and the cost of a television set is ₹ 5998.00. Find the total cost of the video game set and the television set.

Q-20

Find out a pattern and write next three numbers.

(a) 5, 10, 15, 20, ____, ____, ____

(b) 11, 22, 33, 44, ____, ____, ____

(c) 66, 60, 54, 48, ____, ____, ____

(d) 5, 9, 13, 17, ____, ____, ____

Q-21

Add to complete pattern to make a series of six numbers:

(a) Addition of 3 consecutive numbers:
1 + 2 + 3 =
2 + 3 + 4 =
3 + 4 + 5 =
4 + 5 + 6 =
5 + 6 + 7 =

(b) Addition of 4 consecutive numbers:
1 + 2 + 3 + 4 =
2 + 3 + 4 + 5 =
3 + 4 + 5 + 6 =
5 + 6 + 7 + 8 =

(c) Addition of consecutive odd numbers:
1+3=
1 + 3 + 5 =
1 + 3 + 5 + 7 =
1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9 =

Q-22

Look at the pattern and complete the blanks :

(a)

(b)

Q-23

Fill in the blank with the correct number :

(a)

(b)

Q-24

Solve the following:

(a) What must be added to 1,231 to get 4,259?

(b) What must be subtracted from 15,294 to get 256 ?

(c) What must be added to 42,436 to get the largest 5 digit number?

(d) Find the number that is 7,749 less than 17,594.

(e) Find the number that is less than 7,296 by 1,260.

(f) How much smaller is 4,891 than 24,536 ?

(g) If the sum of 7,121 and 4,223 is subtracted from 27,890, what is the difference comes?

Q-25

Solve the following:

(1) You have ₹ 1500. You want to buy a T-shirt for ₹ 499. and jeans for ₹ 720 but you don’t want to buy trousers for ₹ 890. How much money will you have to spend ?

(2.) In a cinema hall 5,000 people can sit. One day there were 4,829 people of which 1,869 were women. How many were men.

(3.) An airline charges ₹ 1049 for an adult and₹ 679 for a child from Delhi to Agra. For a family package they charge ₹ 2550. If Mr. Ashish bought ticket for himself and his 8 year old son and gave ₹ 3000 to the ticketer, how much money did he get back?

(4.) There were 59,200 people living in Rajnagar and 48,990 people in Ramesh Nagar. After the earthquake in Rajnagar only 11,480 people were there. Find out the number of missing people.

(5.) A milk dairy produced 60,000 pouches of milk and 5,000 pouches of ghee everyday. It supplies 55,298 milk pouches a day to various depots. How many pouches of milk are not sold ?

Chapter-19   Multiplication
Q-1 Multiply the following by Expanded Notation Method :
(a) 243 × 5
(b) 707 × 6
(c) 456 × 9
(d) 243 × 4
(e) 380 × 6
(f) 2,353 × 8
(g) 1,948 × 7
(h) 9,457 × 3
Q-2 Multiply using the Lattice Method :
(a) 289 × 12
(b) 549 × 29
(c) 732 × 36
(d) 910 × 43
Q-3 Fill in the blanks:
(a) 6 × 10 = ..................
b) 19 × 10 = ..................
(c) 367 × 100 = ..................
(d) 23 × 100 = ..................
(e) 993 × 1,000 = ..................
(f) 93 × 10,000 = ..................
(g) 726 × 10,000 = ..................
(h) 7× 1,00,000 = ..................
Q-4 Numericals..
1. A bag contains 84 kg of sugar. Find the quantity of sugar in 47 such bags.
2. Mr. Raj has 38 five hundred rupee notes. How much money does he have ?
3. A bus carries 239 passengers in a day. How many passengers will it carry in a year.
4. 862 trucks each carrying 696 kg of mangoes come into the city. How many kg of mangoes have come into the city?
5. A clerk in an office works 6 days in a week for all 52 weeks of the year. If he worked 5 hours a day, find the total number of hours he works in a year.
6. Akshita bought 3 pens each costing ` 32.50. How much change did she get back if she gave a ` 100 note to the shopkeeper?
7. A bundle of admission forms has 360 forms. If a school has 68 bundles of forms, How many forms are there?
8. On a certain flight the first class fare is ` 893 and the economy class fare is ` 542. How much money is paid to the airline if there are 109 passengers flying first class and 238 flying in the economy class?
9. The figures from the weather department show that over the last 4 years (take each year as 365 days), Delhi had 483 rainy days. How many clear days did Delhi have over 4 years?
10. Mr. Ramesh gets ` 9782 as monthly salary. Calculate his yearly income.
Q-5

Double the 4 times table to find these products :

(a) 5 × 8

(b) 7 × 8

(c) 8 × 8

Q-6

Double the 8 times table to find these products :

(a) 6 × 16

(b) 7 × 16

(c) 5 × 16

(d) 9 × 16

Q-7

Use multiplies of 10 to find these products :

(a) 7 × 19

(b) 5 × 29

(c) 6 × 39

(d) 8 × 49

Q-8

Round each factor with more than one digit to the nearest tens. Then estimate the product :

(a) 57 × 6

(b) 48 × 31

(c) 36 × 39

(d) 43 × 42

Q-9

Estimate the product by rounding the first factor up and the second factor down to the nearest tens :

(a) 45 × 62

(b) 69 × 77

(c) 88 × 17

(d) 55 × 75

Q-10

Estimate the product by rounding to the nearest hundreds :

(a) 881 × 323

(b) 603 × 177

(c) 213 × 343

(d) 584 × 164

Q-11

Estimate the product by rounding the first factor up and the second factor down to the nearest hundreds:

(a) 881 × 323

(b) 603 × 177

(c) 213 × 343

(d) 584 × 164

(e) 896 × 309

Q-12

Find the product using column method :

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Q-13

Multiply the following by Expanded Notation Method :
Q-14

Multiply the following by Expanded Notation Method :

(a) 2,164 × 3

(b) 7,288 × 5

(c) 5,724 × 7

(d) 55 × 5

(e) 52 × 8

Q-15

Multiply and find

(a) 67 × 12

(b) 68 × 74

(c) 802 × 27

(d) 231 × 36

(e) 464 × 43

Q-16

Multiply and find the product:

(a) 73 × 30

(b) 123 × 40

(c) 938 × 20

(d) 843 × 50

(e) 770 × 70

Q-17

Multiply the following:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

Q-18

Multiply and find the product:

(a) 804 × 200

(b) 376 × 300

(c) 453 × 500

(d) 268 × 700

(e) 317 × 600

Q-19

Observe the patterns and fill in the blanks :

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Q-20

Study the pattern and fill in the missing terms :

(a)

(b)

Q-21

Solve the followings:

(1.) Akshita bought 3 pens each costing ₹ 32.50. How much change did she get back if she gave a ₹100 note to the shopkeeper?

(2.) A bundle of admission forms has 360 forms. If a school has 68 bundles of forms, How many forms are there?

(3.) On a certain flight the first class fare is ₹ 893 and the economy class fare is ₹ 542. How much money is paid to the airline if there are 109 passengers flying first class and 238 flying in the economy class?

(4.) The figures from the weather department show that over the last 4 years (take each year as 365 days), Delhi had 483 rainy days. How many clear days did Delhi have over 4 years?

(5.) Mr. Ramesh gets ₹ 9782 as monthly salary. Calculate his yearly income.

Chapter-20   Division
Q-1 Divide the following
(a) 3245 ÷ 4
(b) 4214 ÷ 6
(c) 5208 ÷ 6
(d) 9719 ÷ 9
(e) 2148 ÷ 2
(f) 6738 ÷ 8
(g) 7103 ÷ 3
Q-2 Find the quotient and remainder of the following
(a) 84 ÷ 13
(b) 36 ÷ 14
(c) 72 ÷ 16
(d) 95 ÷ 15
(e) 62 ÷ 24
(f) 91 ÷ 11
(g) 88 ÷ 16
(h) 52 ÷ 22
Q-3 Divide using method 2:
(a) 139 ÷ 16
(b) 511 ÷ 46
(c) 202 ÷ 12
(d) 231 ÷ 17
(e) 461 ÷ 52
Q-4 Numericals..
1. Sum of 7 and 29 is subtracted from the quotient obtained by dividing 6000 by 20. What is the result?
2. Find the difference between the twice of 54 and half of 98.
3. A shopkeeper sold 16 chairs each for ` 2475 and 13 tables for ` 2685 each. Find the amount he received.
4. A man purchase 7 calculators for ` 735, and 17 registers for ` 425. Find the difference in the price of two items.
5. What must be subtracted from the largest 5-digit number to be exactly divisible by 35?
Q-5

Divide the following :

(a) 330 ÷ 10

(b) 70 ÷ 10

(c) 80 ÷ 20

(d) 90 ÷ 30

(e) 420 ÷ 20

Q-6

Fill in the blanks :

                                       Quotient                             Remainder

(a) 606 ÷ 30                    ___________________                 ____________________

(b) 467 ÷ 70                     ___________________                 ____________________

(c) 338 ÷ 30                     ___________________                 ____________________

(d) 598 ÷ 50                     ___________________                 ____________________

(e) 837 ÷ 70                      ___________________                 ____________________

Q-7

Estimate the quotient of the following :

(a) 91 ÷ 22
Rounded sum ____________________
Estimated quotient ____________________

(b) 83 ÷ 13
Rounded sum ____________________
Estimated quotient ____________________

(c) 58 ÷ 27
Rounded sum ____________________
Estimated quotient ____________________

(d) 112 ÷ 32
Rounded sum ____________________
Estimated quotient ____________________

(e) 312 ÷ 54
Rounded sum ____________________
Estimated quotient ____________________

Q-8

Divide using method 2:

(a) 139 ÷ 16

(b) 511 ÷ 46

(c) 202 ÷ 12

(d) 231 ÷ 17

(e) 461 ÷ 52

(f) 523 ÷ 47

Q-9

Divide and check your answer :

(a) 109 ÷ 19

(b) 227 ÷ 29

(c) 339 ÷ 48

(d) 858 ÷ 46

(e) 429 ÷ 55

Q-10

Divide the following :

(a) ₹ 52.50 by 6

(b) ₹ 149.52 by 4

(c) ₹ 105 by 3

(d) ₹ 224.00 by 4

(e) ₹ 81.80 by 5

Q-11

Divide using method 2:

(a) If 3 chocolates cost ₹ 49.50. How much does 1 chocolate cost ?

(b) If 9 sketch colour boxes cost ₹ 305.50. What is the cost of 1 sketch colour box?

(c) If 7 dozen pencils cost ₹ 149.25. What does 1 dozen cost ?

(d) If 4 comic books cost ₹ 132.50. What does 1 comic book cost?

Q-12

Estimate the quotient of the following :

(a) 15 ÷ 5 = _______________

      150 ÷ 5 = _______________

      1500 ÷ 5 = _______________

      15000 ÷ 5 = _______________

(b) 22 ÷ 11 = _______________

      220 ÷ 11 = _______________

      2200 ÷ 11 = _______________

      22000 ÷ 11 = _______________

Q-13

Study the following patterns and complete the blanks :

(a) 4000 ÷ 8 = _______________

      4000 ÷ 80 = _______________

      4000 ÷ 800 = _______________

(b) 2000 ÷ 2 = _______________

       2000 ÷ 20 = _______________

       2000 ÷ 200 = _______________

       2000 ÷ 2000 = _______________

Q-14

Look at the pattern and complete the blanks :
Q-15

Solve:

(1.) A company bought 4 chairs for ` 3328. What is the cost of one chair?

(2.) A packet can contain 45 sweets. How many such packets are needed to pack 1000 sweets? How many sweets are left over.

(3.) 4000 bags of cement were equally loaded on 9 trucks. How many bags were loaded on each truck ? How many bags were left over ?

(4.) 8928 note-books are equally distributed among 48 students. How many note-books does each student get?

(5.) Cost of 30 radios is ` 7500. Find the cost of 1 ratio.

Q-16

Using the facts given in problem choose the questions which can be answered and then solve them.

(a) Mahajan's zen car has travelled 770 km over 22 days. He drives car 22 days in a month.
(i) How many km does he travel in his car ?
(ii) How many km does he travel in a day ?
(iii) How many litres of petrol would he need to go 40 km?

(b) 960 people watched the movie in a cinema hall. There were 30 rows in the cinema hall.
(i) How many people were there in each row ?
(ii) How many people were there in the hall ?
(iii) What was the duration of movie ?

(c) A shop of clothes has 428 trousers, 1056 jeans, and 873 shirts.
(i) How many shirts are there in the shops ?

(ii) How many jeans of one brand are there in the shop ?
(iii) How many trousers, jeans and shirt are there in all?

(d) Mr. Khurana had ` 7,395 in the bank. He wanted to have ` 10,000 in his bank account.
(i) How many people use the bank ?
(ii) How much more money does he need to save ?
(iii) How much money can Mr. Khurana take out from his account?

Q-17

Simplify the following and write their answers:

(a) 8 ÷ 4 × 6 – 2 + 3 _____________________________

(b) 16 × 8 ÷ 4 _____________________________

(c) 32 + 40 – 8 – 7 × 6 _____________________________

(d) 710 × 15 + 805 ÷ 5 – 15 _____________________________

(e) 48 ÷ 6 × 70 + 110 _____________________________

Chapter-21   Factors and Multiples
Q-1 Find the factors of the following numbers using multiplication.
(a) 15
(b) 20
(c) 24
(d) 36
(e) 41
Q-2 Find the factors of the following numbers using division
(a) 16
(b) 23
(c) 39
(d) 45
(e) 54
Q-3 Fill in the blanks
(a) 4, 8, ——, 16, ——, 24, ——
(b) 5, 10, ——, ——, 25
(c) 9, 18, ——, ——, 45, ——, ——
(d) 7,14,——,——,35,——
(e) 12, 24, ——, ——, 60, ——, ——
(f) 6, 12, ——, ——, 30, ——
Q-4 Write the next three multiples
(a) 3, 6, 9, ——, ——, ——
(b) 10, 20, 30, ——, ——,——
(c) 16, 32, 48, ——, ——, ——
(d) 15, 30, 45, ——, ——, ——
(e) 9, 18, 27, ——, ——, ——
Q-5 Write the first five multiples of the following
(a) 11
(b) 14
(c) 16
(d) 9
(e) 7
Q-6

Find out the products of the following pairs of numbers and find factors of the products obtained.

(a) 8, 12

(b) 11,4

(c) 12, 13

(d) 14, 11

Q-7

State whether the following statements are ‘True’ or ‘False’ :

(a) 7 is a factor of 105.

(b) 0 is a factor of 236.

(c) 1 is a factor of every number.

(d) 539 is a factor of 0.

(e) Every number is a factor of itself.

(f) 13 is a factor of 99.

Q-8

Make a factor tree for each of the following numbers:

(a) 24

(b) 15

(c) 48

(d) 63

Q-9

Find the common factors for each of the following :

(a) 3,12

(b) 7,8

(c) 7,14

(d) 16,21

Q-10

Solve: 

(1.) 48 boxes of Rasgullas have to be kept in equal piles. What are the piles of equal number of boxes that can be made?

(2.) The sport teacher is making his class of 42 children stand in rows. What are the different number of rows he can make, such that each row has the same number of children ?

(3.) A library attendant has to keep 38 books in equal piles. What are the different piles of equal number of books that he can make?

(4.) 24 students are planning to put up a dance show on Teachers’ Day. How many different kinds of equal sized groups can they form for the performance?

(5.) 54 buckets have to be kept in equal groups. What are the groups of equal number of buckets that can be made ?

Q-11

Say whether the following are ‘True’ or ‘False’:

(a) 3, 6, 9, 12, 18 are all multiples of 6. ____________

(b) 9, 18, 27, 36,45 are all multiples of 9. ____________

(c) 1 is not a multiple of every number. ____________

(d) 6 is multiple of 25. ____________

(e) Since 5 × 3 = 15, 15 is a multiple of both 5 and 3. ____________

Q-12

List the common multiples of the following using the number line.

(a) 4 and 8

Q-13

Find the first three common multiples of :

(a) 4, 5

(b) 2, 6

(c) 6, 3

(d) 4, 8

Q-14

List the common multiples of 2 and 5 using the number line.
Q-15

Fill up the blanks:

(a)

(b)

Chapter-22   Fractions
Q-1 Fill in the blanks
(a) There are _____________ quarters in one-half.
(b) There are _____________ quarters in a whole.
(c) There are _____________ quarters in three-fourths.
(d) There are _____________ halves in a whole.
Q-2 Answer the following questions using your understanding of fractions
(a) Which is more expensive, onions or cauliflowers?
(b) How much does 1/ 2 kg of cauliflower cost ?
(c) How much does 1 kg of onions cost?
(d) How much does 3 /4 kg of cauliflower cost ?
(e) How much does 1 kg of cauliflower cost?
(f) How much would you pay for 1 /4 kg of onions ?
(g) How much would you pay for 3 /4 kg of onions ?
Q-3 Numericals..
(a) A cinema hall has 500 seats. 3 /5 of the seats are empty. How many seats are empty ?
(b) In a group of 49 students who went for a picnic, 3/ 7 were girls. How many were girl students ?
(c) During the class election, Prem got 2/ 6 of the 36 votes polled. How many votes did he get ?
(d) Simran had 54 toffees. She distributed 4 /9 toffees to her friends. How many toffees did she distribute ?
(e) Class IV-A has 42 students. 5 6 of them take part in the annual function. How many students participated in the function ?
(f) An ant covers 1. 3/ 4 m in first hour and 2 .1/ 4 m in the second hour. Find the total distance covered by the ant in two hours.
(g) Nidhi drank 4 /5 of a glass of juice in the morning and 3/ 5 glass of juice in the evening. How much more did she drink in the morning ?
(h) Neelam has two pieces of ribbon measuring 2 .1/ 2 m and 5. 1/ 2 m. Find the total length of the two pieces.
(i) Meenakshi and Manjula bought a cake. Meenakshi ate 1/ 4 of the cake and Manjula ate 2/ 4 of the same cake. What fraction of the cake did they eat altogether ?
Q-4

Fill in the blanks :

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

Q-5

Fill in the missing number :

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

Q-6

Which of the following fractions are like and which are unlike :

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Q-7

Write the correct sign ’>’ or ‘<’ in each :

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

(f)

Q-8

Arrange the following in ascending order :

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Q-9

Arrange the following in descending order :

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Q-10

Look at the figures and fill in the blanks :

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Q-11

Add the following fractions :

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

Q-12

Subtract the following fractions :

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

Q-13

Identify which of the following fractions are unit fractions :
Q-14

Answer the following using mixed numbers :

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Q-15

Convert these improper fractions into mixed fractions :

(a) 26/5

(b) 14/3

(c) 5/2

(d) 15/6

(e) 7/3

Q-16

Change these mixed fractions into improper fractions:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Q-17

Find the fraction in each of the following :

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Chapter-23   The Plant World
Q-1 True Or False
(a) Leaves have a green substance called glucose.
(b) Air enters leaves through stomata.
(c) Plants take in oxygen and give out carbon dioxide during respiration.
(d) Iodine solution gives brown colour in the presence of starch.
(e) Animals depend on plants for carbon dioxide.
Q-2 Name the following.
1. The lines on the sides of a leaf
2. The substance that gives a leaf its green colour
3. The plant uses this as its food
4. Food gets stored in the plant in this form
5. Gas that animals breathe out
Q-3 Very short-answer type questions
1. What do you mean by the term ‘photosynthesis’ ?
2. In what form is extra food stored in plants?
3. What will you find on the underside of a leaf if you put it under a microscope?
4. How do stomata help a plant?
5. What do green leaves need in order to make food?
6. What is the role of veins in the leaf?
Q-4 Long answer type questions:
1. Name the various parts of a leaf and mention their functions.
2. Prove through an experiment that sunlight is necessary for photosynthesis.
3. Describe the process of photosynthesis in plants.
4. What is the role of plants in maintaining a balance in nature?
5. Explain how plants and animals depend on each other for food.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The flat part of a leaf is called the

(i)

midrib

(ii)

lamina

(iii)

veins

(iv)

leaf edge
Q-2 The gas given out by plants during photosynthesis is

(i)

hydrogen

(ii)

nitrogen

(iii)

oxygen

(iv)

carbon dioxide
Q-3 In the presence of sunlight, green leaves change carbon dioxide and water into

(i)

chlorophyll

(ii)

glucose

(iii)

stomata

(iv)

protein
Chapter-24   Adaptations in Plant
Q-1 True Or False
(a) The leaves of the touch-me-not plant release poison when touched.
(b) The plants that grow on land are called aquatic plants.
(c) In cactus plants, flowers are modified into spines.
(d) A coconut tree has a flexible trunk and large fronds which help it to bear strong winds.
Plants in hilly areas are cone-shaped.
Q-2 Give two examples of each
1. floating plants — .................................. ..................................
2. fixed plants — .................................. ..................................
3. underwater plants — .................................. ..................................
Q-3 Short answer type questions:
1. What is meant by adaptation?
2. Name various terrestrial plants. Describe one feature of each plant.
3. What are aquatic plants? Give some examples.
4. Why is it difficult for plants other than mangroves to grow in marshy areas?
5. Name the plants which grow in mountains. Why are they coneshaped?
Q-4 Long answer type questions:
1. How do plants in hills adapt in order to live in cold conditions?
2. How does a cactus survive in deserts?
3. What are the features of fixed plants that help them to live in water?
4. Explain how a Venus flytrap traps an insect.
5. Give some uses of the plants of the grass family.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Plants in the plains shed their leaves in

(i)

autumn

(ii)

winter

(iii)

rainy season

(iv)

spring
Q-2 A cactus plant makes food in its

(i)

leaves

(ii)

flowers

(iii)

root

(iv)

stem
Q-3 Mangroves grow in

(i)

marshy areas

(ii)

sandy areas

(iii)

hills

(iv)

deserts
Q-4 The duckweed is a/an

(i)

underwater plant

(ii)

floating plant

(iii)

land plant

(iv)

sandy areas
Chapter-25   Adaptations in Animals
Q-1 Match the following:
Q-2 Write H for herbivores, C for carnivores and O for omnivores.
1. deer and goats
2. eagles and kites
3. cows and buffaloes
4. man and bears
5. tigers and wolves
6. crows and robins
Q-3 Short answer type questions
1. What is the meaning of the term ‘hibernation’?
2. How have herbivores adapted themselves to eat their food?
3. Explain how have carnivores adapted themselves to eat their food?
4. How do deer and snails protect themselves?
5. How does a chameleon protect itself?
6. What is the meaning of the term ‘migration’?
7. What are extinct and endangered animals?
8. What have been set up to protect the endangered animals?
Q-4 Long answer type questions:
1. Explain the adaptive features of aquatic, aerial and arboreal animals.
2. Discuss the adaptations of animals living in polar regions which help them to survive in such climate.
3. Discuss the adaptations in various animals based on the type of food they eat.
4. Discuss the adaptations of various animals which help them to stay protected from their enemies.
Q-5

Give reasons for the following.

(1.) A mountain goat has strong hooves.

(2.) Camels can live without food and water for a long time.

(3.) A fish can swim through water.

(4.) A frog can live on land and in water.

(5.) Vultures can locate a dead animal.

Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Terrestrial animals live here.

(i)

in water

(ii)

on land and in water

(iii)

on land

(iv)

in air
Q-2 This animal is called the ship of the desert.

(i)

lion

(ii)

duck

(iii)

camel

(iv)

polar bear
Q-3 These help a fish to breathe in water.

(i)

fins

(ii)

flippers

(iii)

gills

(iv)

lungs
Q-4 These help a deer to run away from its enemies

(i)

a trunk

(ii)

strong teeth

(iii)

strong legs

(iv)

a hooked beak
Q-5 One of the following is an endangered animal.

(i)

crow

(ii)

cow

(iii)

sea turtle

(iv)

mosquito
Chapter-26   Creepy-Crawlies
Q-1 Name the following.
1. Two insects that live in nests
2. Two creepy-crawlies that help the gardener.
3. Two insects that can be seen at night.
4. An insects that flies like a helicopter.
5. An eight-legged creature that spins a web.
Q-2 Short answer type questions:
1. What is the difference between a housefly and a spider?
2. What are fireflies? How can they light up at night?
3. What is a centipede? What does it eat?
4. What is a worm’s body divided into?
Q-3 Long answer type questions:
1. What are social insects? Write two lines for each of them.
2. Which creepy-crawlies suck blood?
4. How does a snail protect itself?
5. What does a snail eat and how does it slide?
3. What can be done to keep insects away?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 An insect’s body is divided into ......................... parts.

(i)

eight

(ii)

six

(iii)

three

(iv)

two
Q-2 It is used by an insect for feeling and tasting

(i)

abdomen

(ii)

thorax

(iii)

antenna

(iv)

head
Q-3 Which of these is an arachnid ?

(i)

cockroach

(ii)

bee

(iii)

spider

(iv)

wasp
Q-4 Which of these makes a chirrup sound ?

(i)

cricket

(ii)

bee

(iii)

wasp

(iv)

beetle
Q-5 Which of these is a social insect ?

(i)

centipede

(ii)

ant

(iii)

beetle

(iv)

cricket
Chapter-27   Reproduction in Animals
Q-1 True Or False
(a) Mammals reproduce by laying eggs.
(b) A tadpole has a tail and looks like a fish.
(c) The baby of a cockroach is called a caterpillar.
(d) Lizards lay eggs on the ground.
(e) Pupa sheds its skin few times.
Q-2 Write one word for the following
1. Large clusters in which frogs lay eggs.
2. Shedding of old skin by a pupa.
3. The process of development in which a young one does not resemble the adult animal at all.
4. A thin protective shell of an egg.
5. Animals that give birth to their young ones.
Q-3 Short answer type questions:
1. What is reproduction?
2. What is metamorphosis?
3. How is a tadpole different from an adult frog?
4. Name the various stages in the life cycle of a cockroach.
5. Where do lizards and snakes lay their eggs?
Q-4 Long answer type questions:
1. How do mammals take care of their babies? Explain.
2. Explain the different stages of development of a hen.
3. Describe the life cycle of a frog.
4. Differentiate between a larva and a nymph.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 This is a the process by which animals produce their young ones.

(i)

photosynthesis

(ii)

reproduction

(iii)

moulting
Q-2 One of the following gives birth to many babies at a time.

(i)

cow

(ii)

dog

(iii)

human being
Q-3 Which of these does not lay eggs ?

(i)

crocodile

(ii)

bear

(iii)

snake
Q-4 A baby frog is called a

(i)

nymph

(ii)

larva

(iii)

tadpole
Q-5 The larva of a butterfly is called a

(i)

caterpillar

(ii)

pupa

(iii)

nymph
Q-6 The white jelly-like substance inside the egg shell is called

(i)

albumen

(ii)

egg shell

(iii)

egg yolk
Chapter-28   Food and its Preservation
Q-1 True Or False
(a) Cereals are rich in fats.
(b) Adults need more proteins than young children.
(c) Calcium helps to build bones and teeth.
(d) Freshly prepared food is safe and clean.
Q-2 Give reasons.
1. Bread tastes sweet after it is chewed for a while.
2. A rickshaw puller needs a carbohydrate-rich diet.
3. The water in which pulses are soaked should not be thrown away.
4. Wash fruits before peeling them.
5. Over-cooked food is not healthy.
6. Chew food properly before swallowing it.
7. Left-over food is kept in the refrigerator.
8. Food should be eaten at fixed hours.
Q-3 Short-answer type questions.
1. What is the importance of food in our life?
2. Why should we drink sufficient amount of water every day?
3. What do carbohydrates and fats provide the body?
4. Why does the body need proteins?
5. Why should we eat different kinds of food? Give two reasons.
6. Define the following:
7. What is the importance of roughage?
Q-4 Long answer type questions:
1. Explain different methods of food preservation.
2. Name the different components of food. Explain any three of these.
3. What is a balanced diet? Make a food pyramid showing the different groups of food.
4. Write a short note on proper cooking practices.
Q-5

Write two examples for each of the following.

(1.) Carbohydrate-rich food items ............................. .............................

(2.) Protein-rich food items ............................. .............................

(3.) Vitamin-rich food items ............................. .............................

(4.) Iron-rich food items ............................. .............................

(5.) Roughage-rich food items ............................. ............................

Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Potatoes are rich in...

(i)

carbohydrates

(ii)

proteins

(iii)

fats
Q-2 Vitamin C is easily destroyed by ...

(i)

sundrying

(ii)

cooling

(iii)

freezing
Q-3 Pickles can be preserved by...

(i)

canning and bottling

(ii)

boiling

(iii)

heating
Chapter-29   Our Teeth
Q-1 Short-answer type questions.
1. Differentiate between milk teeth and temporary teeth.
2. Name the types of teeth.
3. Name some foods that keep teeth healthy.
4. What are wisdom teeth?
Q-2 Long answer type questions:
1. Draw the structure of a tooth and label its parts.
2. Write a few simple rules of dental care.
3. Explain the different types of teeth.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The first set of teeth is called

(i)

milk teeth

(ii)

permanent teeth

(iii)

strong teeth
Q-2 Teeth help..

(i)

chew food

(ii)

breathe

(iii)

taste food
Q-3 The part of the tooth which is seen is called the....

(i)

cementum

(ii)

crown

(iii)

enamel
Q-4 The maximum number of teeth in an adult person is....

(i)

28

(ii)

32

(iii)

30
Chapter-30   Our Motherland
Q-1 Fill in the blanks
(a) India lies in the __________________ part of Asia.
(b) India is the __________________ largest country of the world.
(c) India is the ____________________ most populous country of the world.
(d) India is bounded by ____________ in the north and by ____________ in the south.
Q-2 Write short answers
1. Where is India situated?
2. Name the neighbouring countries of India.
3. What is the geographical size and shape of India?
4. What are the five physical divisions of India?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The number of states that India has

(i)

27

(ii)

25

(iii)

28

(iv)

29
Q-2 The number of physical divisions into which India is divided on the basis of physical features

(i)

four

(ii)

five

(iii)

eight

(iv)

seven
Chapter-31   The Northern Mountains
Q-1 Fill in the blanks
(a) The Himalayas are______in the east and_______in the west.
(b) _____________ was the first Indian woman to have climbed Mt. Everest.
(c) The highest peak of the Himalayas in India is _________________ .
(d) The southern most Himalayan range is called_________________________ .
Q-2 Write short answers
1. Where are the Himalayas located?
2. Name the four ranges of the Himalayas.
3. What is the extent of the Himalayas?
4. Name the rivers originating from the Himalayas.
Q-3 Answer the following questions :
1. Give four advantages of the Himalayas.
2. How do the Himalayas influence the climate of India?
3. Name four peaks of the Himalayas. Which is the highest mountain peak in India?
4. Describe the branches of the Himalayas in the eastern part of India.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The Himalayan rivers combined drainage basin are home to

(i)

half of the Earth's population

(ii)

one third of the Earth's population

(iii)

4 billion people

(iv)

3 billion people
Q-2 The main Himalayan rivers are

(i)

The Tarim river

(ii)

The Ganga

(iii)

All of these

(iv)

The Red river
Q-3 Mount Everest lies in

(i)

India

(ii)

Nepal

(iii)

China

(iv)

Pakistan
Chapter-32   The Northern Plains
Q-1 Fill in the blanks
(a) The Northern Plains lie to the _______ of the Northern Mountains.
(b) Punjab and Haryana are the two major states of the _____________ Basin.
(c) ___________glacier is the source of the river Ganga .
(d) Soft and fertile soil deposited by a river is called ___________ .
(e) The ___________ is the main tributary of the Sutlej river.
Q-2 Write short answers
1. Name the three principal rivers of the Northern Plains.
2. Why are the Northern Plains fertile?
3. What is a delta?
4. Name the two rivers, which together make the largest delta in the world.
Q-3 Answer the following questions:
1. How do the rivers of the Northern Plains make the land fertile?
2. Why are the Northern Plains thickly populated?
3. What is the importance of the Northern Plains?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The Northern Plains are also known as

(i)

Indo-Gangetic Plains

(ii)

Sutlej Plains

(iii)

Northern Indian Plains

(iv)

Western Plains
Q-2 Bhakra Nangal Dam is situated in the

(i)

Brahmaputra basin

(ii)

Indus basin

(iii)

Sutlej basin

(iv)

Ganga basin
Q-3 The Ganga Action Plan is about

(i)

using the Ganga water for irrigation.

(ii)

cleaning the Ganga river.

(iii)

making canals from the Ganga river.

(iv)

reducing industrial waste in Ganga river
Chapter-33   The Western Desert
Q-1 Fill in the blanks
(a) The Western Desert is called ___________desert.
(b) This desert lies in the ____________ part of Rajasthan.
(c) The western desert is mostly a _____________ plain.
(d) The region experiences _____________ type of climate.
Q-2 Write short answers
1. What are the characteristics of a desert?
2. What is an oasis?
3. What is the typical vegetation of the desert?
Q-3 Answer the following questions :
1. What do you know about the climate of a desert?
2. How has the face of the desert changed?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The Thar Desert occupies an area of about

(i)

2,00,000 sq. km

(ii)

2,50,000 sq. km

(iii)

3,00,000 sq. km.

(iv)

1,50,000 sq. km
Q-2 The river that flows through the Thar Desert is the

(i)

Chambal

(ii)

Son

(iii)

Luni

(iv)

Betwa
Q-3 The small hills of sand in a desert are called

(i)

Sand hills

(ii)

Sand dunes

(iii)

Mountains

(iv)

The Thar Desert
Chapter-34   The Plateaus
Q-1 Fill in the blanks
(a) The ………….. …………..form the southern boundary of the Malwa Plateau.
(b) The …………..Plateau is very rich in minerals.
(c) The ………….. Plateau has black soils.
(d) The ………….. Gap lies between the Nilgiri hills and the Cardamom hills.
Q-2 Write short answers
1. Name the four major parts of the plateau region.
2. Which minerals are found in the Chota Nagpur Plateau?
3. Name the major rivers of the Peninsular Plateau.
Q-3 Answer the following questions :
1. Describe the extent and shape of the Peninsular Plateau of India.
2. Describe the Deccan Plateau.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 A table land with a flat top, raised above the surrounding land is called:

(i)

A mountain

(ii)

A plain

(iii)

a plateau

(iv)

a desert
Q-2 The average height of a plateau region varies between

(i)

3000 and 5000 metres

(ii)

5000 and 7000 metres

(iii)

1000 and 3000 metres

(iv)

1000 and 2000 metres
Q-3 The average height of Malwa Plateau is

(i)

3000 metres

(ii)

1300 metres

(iii)

700 metres

(iv)

1000 metres
Chapter-35   The Coastal Plains and the Islands
Q-1 Fill in the blanks
(a) The coastline of India is ____________ long.
(b) ___________is a port located on the Northern Circars Coast.
(c) ______________ is the point where the Eastern and the Western Coastal Plains meet each other.
(d) Lakshadweep Islands are situated in _____________.
Q-2 True Or False
(a) The Konkan Coast is full of backwaters.
(b) The Northern Circars is the southern part of the Eastern Coastal Plain.
(c) The Indira Point is in the Andaman Islands.
(d) Lagoons are also called backwaters.
(e) Malabar is situated on the Western Coastal Plain.
Q-3 Write short answers.
1. What is the extent of the Indian coastline?
2. Name the two rivers which make deltas and two rivers which make estuaries.
Q-4 Write long answers
1. How does the Eastern Coastal Plain differ from the Western Coastal Plain?
2. How are the Andaman and Nicobar Islands different from the Lakshadweep Islands?
Chapter-36   The Climate of India
Q-1 Fill in the blanks
(a) Dust storms are common in ___________ season.
(b) Droughts are caused due to ___________ of rain.
(c) _____________ blows in the winter season.
(d) The nights are _____________ and the days are _________in winter.
(e) The rainy season starts in India in the month of __________ .
Q-2 Write short answers
1. Which place in India receives the highest rainfall?
2. Which parts of India receive rain in winter?
3. Which parts of India receive minimum rainfall?
Q-3 Answer the following questions:
1. Why does our country have different climates? Name the three main seasons in India.
2. When does India receive most of the rainfall? Which month receives the maximum rainfall in India?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The rainy season lasts from

(i)

March to June

(ii)

October to December

(iii)

July to September
Q-2 The summer season lasts from

(i)

March to June

(ii)

October to December

(iii)

July to September
Q-3 India can be divided into ________ climatic zones.

(i)

four

(ii)

five

(iii)

three
Q-4 The winter season lasts from

(i)

March to June

(ii)

October to December

(iii)

October to February
Chapter-37   Types of Soils
Q-1 Fill in the blanks
(a) ___________ are inexhaustible resources.
(b) _______________ does not retain much water and dries up quickly.
(c) The Northern Plains have mostly ____________ soils.
(d) Black soils are formed from ____________ rocks.
Q-2 True Or False
(a) Desert soils are mostly made of clay.
(b) Rice grows well on laterite soil.
(c) Felling of trees is not linked with soil erosion.
(d) Alluvial soils are ideal for growing food grains.
(e) Laterite soil is easily leached.
(f) Fruit crops grow well on alluvial soils.
Q-3 Write short answers
1. What is soil? How is it formed ?
2. Name the major types of soils in India.
Q-4 Answer the following questions :
1. What is soil erosion? How is it caused ?
2. Describe the different methods of soil conservation.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Indian soils have been divided into

(i)

six groups

(ii)

eight groups

(iii)

four groups
Q-2 Soil formed by the deposition of silt transported by the rivers is called

(i)

black soil

(ii)

alluvial soil

(iii)

red soil
Q-3 These soils are mainly formed due to the decomposition of ancient rocks

(i)

red soils

(ii)

laterite soils

(iii)

black soils
Q-4 These soils are very good for growing tea, coffee, rubber and coconut

(i)

arid and desert soils

(ii)

forest and mountainous soils

(iii)

laterite soils
Chapter-38   Our Forests and Wildlife
Q-1 Answer the following questions:
1. What is natural vegetation ?
2. Write down four important uses of forests.
3. How many types of forests are there in India? Name them.
4. What is Vanamahotsava ? When is it celebrated?
Q-2 Match the two columns :
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The forests that grow in the areas where annual rainfall is more than 200 cm are called

(i)

Deciduous forests

(ii)

Evergreen forests

(iii)

Mangrove forests
Q-2 The forests that grow along the coast and on the edges of the deltas are called

(i)

Mangrove forests

(ii)

Deciduous forests

(iii)

Mountainous forests
Q-3 Sal, teak, bamboo and cane grow in

(i)

Tidal forests

(ii)

Mountainous forests

(iii)

Dry deciduous forests
Chapter-39   Our Water Resources
Q-1 Answer the following questions:
1. Why is water necessary for life ?
2. Why is irrigation needed in many parts of India ?
3. Give five examples of multi-purpose river valley projects.
4. Why did the environmentalists protest against the construction of the Narmada Dam and the Tehri Dam ?
5. How is water useful in our daily life?
6. Name the water resources of India.
Q-2 Match the two columns:
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The country estimated to have the largest supply of fresh water is

(i)

Japan

(ii)

Brazil

(iii)

Australia
Q-2 The largest category of water use in the world is

(i)

domestic

(ii)

industrial

(iii)

irrigation
Q-3 The management of water resources in India is under the purview of

(i)

Ministry of Water Resources

(ii)

WHO

(iii)

UN
Chapter-40   Our Mineral Resources
Q-1 Write short answers
1. What are minerals?
2. What is an ore?
3. Name the areas producing coal.
4. Name the main oil producing states and areas in our country.
Q-2 Answer the following questions :
1. Why is iron the most important mineral?
2. Why is the conservation of minerals essential?
3. Write three alternatives to coal and petroleum.
Q-3 Match the following columns:
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The mineral that is known as a fossil fuel is

(i)

Iron

(ii)

Petroleum

(iii)

Silver

(iv)

Gold
Q-2 Iron ores are found in the following states

(i)

Jharkhand

(ii)

Goa

(iii)

All of these

(iv)

Madhya Pradesh
Q-3 Prior to Independence we had steel plants at

(i)

Jamshedpur

(ii)

Rudrapur

(iii)

Udaipur

(iv)

Kanpur
Chapter-41   Animal Wealth of India
Q-1 Fill in the blanks
(a) Sheep and goats provide milk, wool and ___________ .
(b) Chickens, turkeys and other birds are raised on a farm called __________ .
(c) White Revolution aims at increasing __________ production.
Q-2 Answer the following questions
1. What is dairying ?
2. What is White Revolution ?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Fish are raised in farms. This is called

(i)

Poultry

(ii)

Dairying

(iii)

Pisciculture
Q-2 'Operation Flood' was started in

(i)

1982

(ii)

1973

(iii)

1970
Chapter-42   Human Resources
Q-1 Fill in the blanks
(a) The _________ of a country are its greatest resources.
(b) The _________ of people is more important for a country.
(c) India has a large _________ too.
Q-2 True Or False
(a) Agriculture is the main source of livelihood in villages.
(b) Natural resources alone make a country great and prosperous.
(c) India is lucky to have a large population.
Q-3 Answer the following questions
1. Why are people the best of all resources?
2. What is the greatest problem of our country?
3. How has the rapid growth of population affected our life?
4. What efforts are being made to improve the human resources in India?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The resources which alone cannot make a country great and prosperous.

(i)

Natural resources

(ii)

Human resources

(iii)

Economic resources

(iv)

Healthcare resources
Q-2 India is lucky to have a vast store of natural resource like

(i)

soil

(ii)

water

(iii)

All of these

(iv)

soil
Q-3 Due to increase in population the demand for the following increases

(i)

Fruit

(ii)

Food

(iii)

Resources

(iv)

Education
Chapter-43   Our Agriculture
Q-1 Write short answers
1. Name the two major seasons of India for growing crops.
2. Where is wheat chiefly grown?
3. Name the major rice producing states of India.
4. Where is tea grown in India?
Q-2 Answer the following questions:
1. Why is India called an agricultural country?
2. What is meant by cash crops? Name any two of them.
3. What do you mean by the Green Revolution?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Tools for primitive subsistence farming are

(i)

digging sticks

(ii)

hoe

(iii)

All of these

(iv)

dao
Q-2 In intensive subsistence farming we use the following:

(i)

insecticides

(ii)

digging sticks

(iii)

tractors

(iv)

hoe
Q-3 For commercial farming we use the following:

(i)

hoe

(ii)

high-yielding seeds

(iii)

large area of land

(iv)

tractors
Chapter-44   Plants-o-Facts
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Which of these is the tallest flower in the world, at almost nine feet tall ?

(i)

Titan arum

(ii)

Sunflower

(iii)

Rose
Q-2 From which part of a tree do we get cinnamon ?

(i)

Fruit

(ii)

Stem

(iii)

Bark
Q-3 What is made from cocoa beans ?

(i)

Chocolate

(ii)

Caffeine

(iii)

Coca cola
Q-4 Which tree oil can clear a blocked nasal passage ?

(i)

Eucalyptus

(ii)

Neem

(iii)

Pine
Q-5 . What is obtained from the bark of the cinchona tree? It is a cure for malaria.

(i)

Quinine

(ii)

Saffron

(iii)

Chlorine
Chapter-45   Plants Quiz?
Q-1 True Or False
(a) Bitter gourd is not considered as an edible vegetable.
(b) . Brinjal is also called aubergine or eggplant.
(c) Ginger is grown above the soil.
(d) Bees pollinate plants.
(e) The carbon dioxide which is present in the air enters the plant through stomata.
(f) Plants utilize sunlight to make their own food.
(g) Leaves are known as the food factories of plants.
(h) Plants absorb nutrients through their roots.
Chapter-46   Important Days in India
Q-1 Match the names of important days with their dates.
Chapter-47   Famous Indian
Q-1 Match the columns
Chapter-48   Famous Instrumentalists
Q-1 Identify and write the names
Chapter-50   Books and Authors
Q-1 Write the names of the authors of these books.
(a) The Jungle Book
(b) Robinson Crusoe
(c) Gulliver’s Travels
(d) The Treasure Island

(e) Winnie the Pooh

(f) Harry Potter Books

(g) Green Eggs and Ham

(h) Panchatantra

(i) Mahabharat

Chapter-51   Sound Words
Q-1 Write the sound word of the following.
(a) Rain
(b) Keys
(c) Leaves
(d) Drums

(e) Bells .....................

(f) Water ....................

(g) Aeroplanes .....................

(h) Clouds .....................

Chapter-52   Human Body Systems
Q-1 Look at the pictures of some organ systems of our body. Then, label the pictures.
Chapter-53   Medical Inventions
Q-1 Match them with their inventors.
Chapter-54   Women Achievers
Q-1 One Word Answer
(a) The first woman to reach the North Pole.
(b) The first woman to win a Nobel Prize.
(c) The first woman to go into space.
(d) The first woman to climb Mount Everest.
(e) The first woman astronaut to be in space for the longest time.
(f) The first computer programmer.
Chapter-55   Ten Tallest Buildings.
Q-1 Name the buildings.
(a) 2717 feet Dubai, UAE
(b) 2073 feet Shanghai, China
(c) 1971 feet Mecca, Saudi Arabia
(d) 1965 feet Shenzhen, China

(e) ....................... 1819 feet Lotte World Tower, South Korea

(f) ....................... 1776 feet New York City, USA

(g) ....................... 1739 feet Guangzhou, China

(h) ....................... 1739 feet Tianjin, China

(i) ....................... 1732 feet Beijing, China

(j) ....................... 1667 feet Taipei, Taiwan