Question bank

Chapter-1   Transport of Nutrients in plants
Q-1 Answer the following Questions

(1) Why do plants and animals need food?

(2) State three importance of water to plants.

Q-2 Name a plant nutrient that helps in:

(a) Growth and repair

(b) Synthesis of chlorophyll

(c) Cell division

Q-3 Fill in the blanks :

(1) In osmosis the movement of _____________________ takes place from their region of _____________________ concentration to their region of _____________________ concentration, while in active transport the movement of ____________________ take place from their region of ______________________ concentration to their region of _____________________ concentration.

(2) __________________ cells are absent in ferns and gymnosperms.

(3) The ______________________ and _____________________ are complex tissues.

(4) Two factors for ascent of sap are ______________________ and ______________________ .

(5) Yellowing of leaf is due to lack of ___________________ .

Q-4 State whether the following statements are true and false :

(1) Diffusion occurs when two solutions of different concentration are separated by a semipermeable membrane.

(2) The yellowing of leaves is known as necrosis.
(3) Flaccidity is a cell condition which makes the cell firm and plump.
(4) Absorption of solutes from the soil requires energy.
(5) Osmosis is a mode of passive transport in plants.
(6) Exchange of gases in plants takes place by a process called transpiration.
(7) Minerals are taken up by the root in the form of ions.
(8) The cell wall is semipermeable while the cell membrane is freely permeable.
(9) The xylem is made up of tracheids and vessels.
(10) Bast fibres are made up of dead cells.
Q-5 Match the column.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 

Movement of water by cell to cell osmosis occurs in:

(i)

Roots

(ii)

Stems

(iii)

Veins of leaves

(iv)

All of these
Q-2 

Which of the following is NOT a component of the xylem?

(i)

Tracheids

(ii)

Vessels

(iii)

Seive tubes

(iv)

None of these
Q-3 

Pholem ________ provides mechanical support to the plant.

(i)

Parenchyma

(ii)

Pholem fibres

(iii)

Seive tubes

(iv)

Bast fibres
Q-4 

Which of the following processes requires energy?

(i)

Diffusion

(ii)

Osmosis

(iii)

Active transport

(iv)

None of these
Q-5 

Which of the following is NOT an essential plant nutrient?

(i)

Boron

(ii)

Potassium

(iii)

Iron

(iv)

Iodine
Q-6 

Which statement is true for transpiration?

(i)

It cools the plant and the environment

(ii)

It enables ascent of sap

(iii)

It removes excess water from the plant

(iv)

All of the above
Q-7 

Which of the following statement is true for a root hair cell?

(i)

It has an impermeable cell wall

(ii)

It has a freely permeable cell membrane

(iii)

It has a semi-permeable cell membrane

(iv)

None of the above
Q-8 

The following is an example of passive transport:

(i)

Diffusion

(ii)

Osmosis

(iii)

Active transport

(iv)

Both a and b
Q-9 

A plant loses water through?

(i)

Stomata

(ii)

Cuticles

(iii)

Lenticels

(iv)

All of these
Q-10 

When outside temperatures are high, the rate of transpiration:

(i)

Increases

(ii)

Decreases

(iii)

Remains same

(iv)

None of these
Q-11 

Water is distributed throughout the plant body due to:

(i)

Osmosis

(ii)

Transpiration pull

(iii)

lmbibition

(iv)

Root pressure
Q-12 

Chlorosis is the yellowing of leaf due to deficiency of?

(i)

Iron

(ii)

Boron

(iii)

Iodine

(iv)

Sodium
Q-13 

The techniques of growing plants used water based nutrients is called?

(i)

Hybridisation

(ii)

Cloning

(iii)

Hydroponics

(iv)

Tissue culture
Q-14 

Seive tubes are dependent on:

(i)

Tracheids

(ii)

Companion cells

(iii)

Bast fibres

(iv)

Xylem vessels
Q-15 

A plant cell lacks?

(i)

Plastids

(ii)

Centrioles

(iii)

Cell membrane

(iv)

Cell wall
Chapter-2   Reproduction in Plants and Animals
Q-1 Answer the following Question

(1) State one difference between sexual and asexual reproduction.

(2) List the different modes of asexual reproduction.

(3) Name an organism that reproduces within a cyst. What environmental conditions favour cyst formation ?

(4) Show with the help of a series of labelled sketches how budding takes place in yeast.

(5) What is meant by perennation? Give two examples each of roots and stems that are adapted for perennation.

(6) What is a bud? Name a plant that bears buds on its leaves.

(7) What is artificial vegetative propagation? Name three methods of artificial vegetative propagation.

(8) In the diagram below label the essential whorls and explain why they are so called.
Q-2 Name:
(a) Two organisms in which fertilisation is external.
(b) Two organisms in which fertilisation is internal.
(c) The female gamete
(d) The male gamete
(e) Two organisms that are hermaphrodites.
Q-3 Name the type of asexual reproduction observed in the following organisms:
(a) Hydra
(b) Yeast
(c) Tapeworm
(d) Rhizopus
(e) Spirogyra
(f) Amoeba
(g) Planaria
(h) Euglena
Q-4 Explain the following terms:
(a) Vegetative propagation
(b) Micropropagation
Q-5 Fill in the blanks:
(a) ___________ is common in unicellular organisms and occurs when food is abundant and temperature optimum.
(b) The power of regrowing lost portions is called -----------
(c) In bread moulds, the spore producing part of the plant body is called ________________
(d) A cut part of an organism, without the _____ cannot regenerate and eventually dies.
(e) In hydra, the bud forms from one side of the body and develops to form a _________ and __________ before it detaches from the parent.
Q-6 Answer the Following Questions
(1). Define sexual reproduction.
(2). State the advantages of sexual reproduction.
Q-7 Explain or define the following terms:
(a) Fertilisation
(b) Pollination
(c) Germination
Q-8 Name the part of the flower that develops into:
(a) Fruit
(b) Seed
Q-9 Fill in the blanks:
(a) The male reproductive whorl of a flower is called ___________ .
(b) The female reproductive whorl of a flower is called __________ .
(c) A pollen grain has two coats called the ____________ and the __________ .
(d) The ____________ connects the stigma to the ____________ .
(e) Each member of the gynoecium is called a ___________ .
(f) Each pistil is made up of the _________ , the _________ and the ________
Q-10 Name the type of pollination shown in the diagrams below. State two advantages and two disadvantages of this mode of pollination.
Q-11 Give one term for the following:
(a) Pollination brought about by birds.
(b) A ripened ovary.
(c) Pollination brought about by wind.
(d) Flower which contains all the four whorls.
(e) Pollination brought about by water.
(f) Pollination brought about by insects.
Q-12 Answer the following questions

(1) Name the male and female gametes in humans.

(2) State two structural differences between the male and female gametes.

(3) Explain why a large number of eggs are shed in case of external fertilisation.

Q-13 Give two examples each of organisms in which fertilisation is:
(a) Internal
(b) External
Q-14 Explain why:
(a) A frog lays its eggs in water.
(b) Reptilian eggs are tough and leathery.
Q-15 State the function of the following structures present in mammals:
(a) Testes in male
(b) Ovaries in the female
(c) Uterus in the female
Q-16 State whether the following statements are true or false:
(a) In insects the shell is formed before fertilisation .
(b) In reptiles and birds the shell forms after fertilisation .
(c) In mammals no shell forms, the zygote and resulting embryo are retained within the mother.
(d) In general, the female sex cells are larger than the male sex cell.
Q-17 Name:
(a) The tissues that secrete male hormones in the human male.
(b) The tubules where sperms are produced in the male reproductive system .
(c) The ducts in the male reproductive system where sperms are stored .
(d) The fluid formed by the secretions of the seminal vesicle.
(e) Two hormones produced by the ovaries in the human female .
Q-18 Fill in the blanks:
(a) _____ is the product of fusion of male and female gametes.
(b) Fimbriae fringing the oviducal funnel push the released ovum into the ________________ .
(c) Fertilisation takes place in the ________________ .
(d) The ___________ transport the sperms from epididymis to the urethra.
(e) The propulsion of semen from the urethra to the exterior is called _______________- .
(f) The ___________ is the site of sperm maturation.
(g) Sperms are produced by a process known as _________________ .
Chapter-3   Our Ecosystem
Q-1 Answer the following questions.

(1) What is an ecosystem?

(2) Name two biotic and four abiotic components of an ecosystem.
(3) Name two biotic and four abiotic components of an ecosystem.
(4) What is likely to happen if a marine fish were to enter a fresh water river or pond? Would it burst or would it shrivel?
(5) State three effects of light on survival of plants and animals.
(6) "An ecosystem is open". Explain this statement.
(7) Explain why pyramid of energy is pyramid shaped, rather than another shape, such as a square.
Q-2 State how each of the following factors contributes toward establishing habitats
(i) Sunlight
(ii) Transpiration
(iii) Forests
Q-3 Match the ecosystem terms with the suitable description.
Q-4 Explain the difference between the following pairs:
(i) Food chain and Food web
(ii) Decomposers and Detrivores
(iii) Pyramid of Numbers and Pyramid of Energy
(iv) Herbivores and Carnivores
Q-5 Trees are important in maintaining environmental balance. State the role of forests with respect to:
(i) Control of soil erosion and maintaining soil fertility.
(ii) Recycling of water.
(iii) Control of flash floods
Q-6 Give one term for the following:
(i) Two organisms coexisting for mutual benefit.
(ii) Dry animal matter
(iii) Layer that constitutes the tallest trees in a rainforest.
(iv) Forests in which broad leaved, evergreen trees are found.
(v) Partial parasitic plants whose roots absorb water from the air.
Q-7 State whether the following statements are true or false:
(i) The energy flows from the sun through to the ultimate consumer in a single direction.
(ii) The forest floor of rainforests has plants with leaves arranged in rosettes so that the upper leaves do not shade the lower ones.
(iii) Maximum energy is available at the lowest trophic level.
(iv) At every successive trophic level, there is a loss of energy and of nutrients.
(v) A food chain always begins with a green plant.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 

The largest terrestrial unit of the biosphere is:

(i)

Niche

(ii)

Habitat

(iii)

Community

(iv)

Biome
Q-2 

Which of the following is NOT an abiotic component

(i)

Soil

(ii)

Sunlight

(iii)

Water

(iv)

Microorganisms
Q-3 

_______________ is the source of soil and minerals.

(i)

Atmosphere

(ii)

Lithosphere

(iii)

Biosphere

(iv)

Hydrosphere
Q-4 

The distribution of forests depends upon:

(i)

Temperature + Rainfall

(ii)

Humidity + Rainfall

(iii)

Soil + Humidity

(iv)

Soil + Rainfall
Q-5 

If a river fish strayed into the ocean then its body would:

(i)

Bloat up

(ii)

Shrivel up

(iii)

Be the same

(iv)

None of these
Q-6 

The effect of light on the growth of a plant is called:

(i)

Photosynthesis

(ii)

Photoperiodism

(iii)

Photomorphogenesis

(iv)

Photolysis
Q-7 

In the presence of light the stem bends ______________ light and the root bends __________________ the light.

(i)

Towards, towards

(ii)

Towards, away from

(iii)

Away from, away from

(iv)

Away from, towards
Q-8 

In a pond, the temperature is never lower than:

(i)

0°C

(ii)

4°C

(iii)

-2.5°C

(iv)

2.5°C
Q-9 

Decomposers cause ______________ of the soi

(i)

Fragmentation

(ii)

Mineralisation

(iii)

De-mineralisation

(iv)

None of these
Q-10 

In an open ecosystem, energy flows in as __________________ and goes out as ------- ------

(i)

Heat, light

(ii)

Light, heat

(iii)

Heat, heat

(iv)

Light, light
Q-11 

Herbivores are also called __________________ consumers .

(i)

Primary

(ii)

Secondary

(iii)

Tertiary

(iv)

Quaternary
Q-12 

The energy flows from the sun through to the ultimate consumer in ________________ direction.

(i)

Upward

(ii)

Downward

(iii)

Single

(iv)

Any
Q-13 

Cuscuta and host is an example of:

(i)

Epiphyte

(ii)

Parasite

(iii)

Symbiosis

(iv)

None of these
Chapter-4   The Endocrine System
Q-1 Differentiate between the following pairs:
(i) Nervous control and Hormonal control
(ii) Exocrine gland and Endocrine gland
(iii) Hormones and Enzymes
Q-2 Answer the following

(1) Name three organs that are endocrine as well as exocrine in function. Also name their endocrine secretions

(2) State three characteristics of hormones.

(3) Explain briefly: The pituitary gland is called the 'master gland'.

(4) Mention three outdoor activities that could be a good form of relaxation. Name any one outdoor activity that you enjoy and which makes you relax.

(5) Mention three indoor activities that could be a good form of relaxation. Name any one indoor activity that you enjoy.

(6) Name two endocrine tissues.

Q-3 State the cause of the following conditions:
(i) Acromegaly
(ii) Dwarfism
(iii) Gigantism
(iv) Diabetes indipidus
Q-4 State the function of the following hormones:
(i) Oxytocin
(ii) Insulin
(iii) Vasopressin
(iv) Thyroxine
Q-5 Explain briefly:
(i) Adrenaline is also known as an emergency hormone.
(ii) Iodine rich food must be included in our diet.
(iii) Menstruating females must practice menstrual health hygiene.
(iv) Exercise should be an integral part of our daily life.
(v) Time management is an integral part of stress management.
Q-6 Fill in the blanks:
(i) Exocrine glands secrete ___________ . _______________ and _______________.
(ii) An average normal adult needs about _________ hours of sleep.
(iii) __________ is the first menstrual period in a female adolescent.
(iv) Increased oil secretions during adolescence results in skin related conditions like __________ . ___________ and _________
(v) Menstruation is a natural occurrence in females that begins between the ages __________ and _________ .
Q-7 Match the column:
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 

This hormone is responsible for "fight-or-flight" response.

(i)

Insulin and glucagon

(ii)

Thyroxine and calcitonin

(iii)

Adrenaline and noradrenaline
Q-2 

Difference between endocrine and exocrine glands is that

(i)

Endocrine glands release hormones while exocrine glands release enzymes

(ii)

Endocrine glands are ductless while exocrine glands release secretions into ducts

(iii)

Endocrine secretions act on target cells away from their source while exocrine glands release their secretions at the site of use.

(iv)

All of the above
Q-3 

This is not an endocrine gland.

(i)

Thyroid gland

(ii)

Sweat gland

(iii)

Adrenal gland

(iv)

Pituitary gland
Q-4 

Insulin converts excess --------- into _______________

(i)

Glycogen, glucose

(ii)

Glucose, glycogen

(iii)

Glucose, starch

(iv)

Starch to glucose
Q-5 

Pancreas is an:

(i)

Endocrine gland

(ii)

Exocrine gland

(iii)

Both a and b

(iv)

None of these
Q-6 

This is not a pituitary hormone:

(i)

Vasopressin

(ii)

Growth hormone

(iii)

Oxytocin

(iv)

Calcitonin
Q-7 

Adrenaline --------- level of glucose in the blood.

(i)

Increases

(ii)

Decreases

(iii)

Keeps same

(iv)

None of these
Q-8 

Puberty in females is characterised by:

(i)

Menstruation

(ii)

Curved body

(iii)

Pubic hair

(iv)

All of these
Q-9 

Puberty in males is characterised by:

(i)

Breaking of voice

(ii)

Beard growth

(iii)

Growth of hair on chest

(iv)

All of these
Q-10 

-----------is a practice that relaxes the mind and body.

(i)

Meditation

(ii)

Swimming

(iii)

Cycling

(iv)

All of these
Q-11 

Which is an NOT an endocrine tissue?

(i)

Ovary

(ii)

Testis

(iii)

Placenta

(iv)

Sweat gland
Q-12 

Conversion of glycogen into glucose by glucagon takes place in:

(i)

Kidney

(ii)

Liver

(iii)

Muscles

(iv)

Heart
Q-13 

The onset of puberty is initiated by the ___________ gland.

(i)

Adrenal

(ii)

Thyroid

(iii)

Pituitary

(iv)

None of these
Q-14 

This hormone stimulates the contraction of the uterus during child birth:

(i)

Oxytocin

(ii)

Thyroxine

(iii)

Adrenaline

(iv)

Insulin
Q-15 

This hormone regulates the amount of water excreted in the urine:

(i)

Insulin

(ii)

Thyroxine

(iii)

Oxytocin

(iv)

Vasopressin
Chapter-5   The Circulatory System
Q-1 Answer the following questions.

(1) State three characteristics of blood.

(2) Distinguish between erythrocytes and leucocytes on the basis of their shape and function .

(3) Nearly 90% of the plasma is water. Mention one important function of the water present in blood.

(4) (i) What is a blood group? (ii) Explain the importance of matching blood groups at the time of blood transfusion. (iii) What is the Rh factor?

(5) Mention two protective functions of the blood.

(6) Mention two regulatory functions of the blood.

(7) Name any four substances that are transported by blood.

Q-2 Name:
(i) The fluid component of blood.
(ii) An element of blood that initiates the clotting process.
(iii) The blood group that is a universal donor.
(iv) The blood group that has no antigens.
(v) The process by which blood is formed.
Q-3 Explain the following terms:
(i) Blood transfusion
(ii) Phagocytosis
Q-4 State whether the following statements are true or false:
(i) The blood is slightly acidic in nature.
(ii) The nucleus is absent in mature mammalian RBCs.
(iii) Leucocytes are associated with the clotting of the blood.
(iv) Haemoglobin is absent in leucocytes and thrombocytes.
(v) A group of people having blood with similar antibody in its plasma are said to belong to the same blood group.
Q-5 Fill in the blanks:
(i) In blood transfusion, blood is drawn from a __________ .
(ii) The hepatic artery supplies blood to the _________ .
(iii) The ______ vein brings blood from the head and neck to the heart.
(iv) The ______ arteries supply blood to the kidneys.
(v) The ______ valve is also known as the mitral valve.
(vi) ___________ ______________ and ________________ are plasma proteins.
(vii) Plasma from which fibrinogen has been removed is called _____________ .
(viii) ____________ is a lymphatic gland.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Which of the following is NOT a part of blood?

(i)

Plasma

(ii)

Lymph

(iii)

Platelets

(iv)

White blood cells
Q-2 Which of the following is a part of the circulatory system?

(i)

Blood vessels

(ii)

Heart

(iii)

Blood

(iv)

All of these
Q-3 Double circulation means that:

(i)

Blood flows in closed vessels

(ii)

Blood remains in the tissues

(iii)

Blood flows through the heart twice

(iv)

Both a and c
Q-4 Which of the following is a chamber of the heart?

(i)

Aorta

(ii)

Ventricle

(iii)

Atrium

(iv)

Both b and c
Q-5 Which statement is true for arteries?

(i)

Thin walled

(ii)

Inelastic

(iii)

Has valves

(iv)

Thick, muscular walls
Q-6 Oxygen-rich blood flows from:

(i)

Left ventricle to whole body

(ii)

Lungs to left atrium

(iii)

Right ventricle to lungs

(iv)

Both a and b
Q-7 Which is a function of the lymphatic system?

(i)

Lymphatic vessels drain away excess tissue fluid and return the proteins to the blood.

(ii)

The lymph has white blood cells which fight infection and protect the body.

(iii)

The lymph provides nutrition to remote parts of the body where blood cannot reach.

(iv)

All the above
Q-8 The red colour of blood is due to the pigment:

(i)

Chromoplast

(ii)

Haemoglobin

(iii)

Both a and b

(iv)

None of these
Q-9 Blood group AB+ can give blood to:

(i)

Blood group A+

(ii)

Blood group B +

(iii)

Blood group AB+

(iv)

All of these
Q-10 Which is NOT a function of blood?

(i)

Protect body against infection

(ii)

Transport gases, nutrients and hormones

(iii)

Regulate body temperature

(iv)

Digest food
Q-11 Which is NOT a characteristic of white blood cells?

(i)

Phagocytosis

(ii)

Large nucleus

(iii)

Disc shape

(iv)

Amoeboid movement
Q-12 Which is a function of platelets?

(i)

To help in the clotting of blood

(ii)

To regulate body temperature

(iii)

To produce antibodies

(iv)

None of these
Q-13 The fluid part of blood is called:

(i)

Serum

(ii)

Plasma

(iii)

Platelet

(iv)

None of these
Q-14 Which of these is a disease of the heart?

(i)

Asthma

(ii)

Malaria

(iii)

Pneumonia

(iv)

Coronary thrombosis
Q-15 Which of these is NOT a plasma protein?

(i)

Fibrinogen

(ii)

Estrogen

(iii)

Albubin

(iv)

Globulin
Chapter-6   The Nervous System
Q-1 Explain or define the following terms:
(i). Neuron
(ii) Nerve
(iii) Stimulus
(iv) Response
(v) Excitability
(vi) Reflex arc
Q-2 The diagram shown represents the human brain as seen in an external view. Study the same and then answer the question that follow:
(i) Name the parts labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4.
(ii) State the difference in the arrangement of the nerve cells in the parts marked '1' and '4'.
(iii) Name the sheet of nerve fibres that connect the two halves of the part labelled '1 '.
(iv) Name is the structural and functional unit of the nervous system.
(v) Why is the brain surface highly convoluted with ridges and grooves?
Q-3 Name/Give one term for the following:
(i) Outer protective membrane of the brain.
(ii) Part of the brain that coordinates muscular activity.
(iii) Part of the brain that coordinates involuntary actions.
(iv) The components of the brain stem.
(v) The fluid contained in the central canal.
Q-4 Select the correct alternative:
(i) Vision centre : Parietal lobe, frontal lobe, occipital lobe, temporal lobe.
(ii) Hearing centre : Parietal lobe, frontal lobe, occipital lobe, temporal lobe.
(iii) Taste centre : Parietal lobe, frontal lobe, occipital lobe, temporal lobe.
Q-5 Answer the following questions.

(1) State the location of the spinal cord located. Also state its function .

(2) What is a reflex action? Give two examples of reflex action.

(3) Define a reflex arc and state its significance.

Q-6 Differentiate between the following:
(i) Reflex action and voluntary action.
(ii) Brain and the spinal cord (on the basis of the distribution of grey matter).
(iii) Dorsal root ganglion and the ventral root (on the basis of composition) .
Q-7 Fill in the blanks:
(i) The ______________ mater is the tough, protective membrane of the brain.
(ii) The_______________ layer contains the cerebrospinal fluid.
(iii) The ________________ hemisphere of the brain is concerned with logic, science and mathematics.
(iv) The ______________ controls all voluntary activities.
(v) The spinal cord is a series of _______________ sections called segments.
Q-8 Explain or define the following terms:

(i) Neuron

(ii) Nerve
(iii) Stimulus
(iv) Response
(v) Excitability
(vi) Reflex arc
Q-9 The diagram shown represents the human brain as seen in an external view. Study the same and then answer the question that follow:
(i) Name the parts labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4.
(ii) State the difference in the arrangement of the nerve cells in the parts marked '1' and '4'.
(iii) Name the sheet of nerve fibres that connect the two halves of the part labelled '1 '.
(iv) Name is the structural and functional unit of the nervous system.
(v) Why is the brain surface highly convoluted with ridges and grooves?
Q-10 Name/Give one term for the following:
(i) Outer protective membrane of the brain.
(ii) Part of the brain that coordinates muscular activity.
(iii) Part of the brain that coordinates involuntary actions.
(iv) The components of the brain stem.
(v) The fluid contained in the central canal.
Q-11 Select the correct alternative:
(i) Vision centre : Parietal lobe, frontal lobe, occipital lobe, temporal lobe.
(ii) Hearing centre : Parietal lobe, frontal lobe, occipital lobe, temporal lobe.
(iii) Taste centre : Parietal lobe, frontal lobe, occipital lobe, temporal lobe.
Q-12 Answer the following questions.

(1) State the location of the spinal cord located. Also state its function .

(2) What is a reflex action? Give two examples of reflex action.

(3) Define a reflex arc and state its significance.

Q-13 Differentiate between the following:
(i) Reflex action and voluntary action.
(ii) Brain and the spinal cord (on the basis of the distribution of grey matter).
(iii) Dorsal root ganglion and the ventral root (on the basis of composition) .
Q-14 Fill in the blanks:
(i) The ______________ mater is the tough, protective membrane of the brain.
(ii) The_______________ layer contains the cerebrospinal fluid.
(iii) The ________________ hemisphere of the brain is concerned with logic, science and mathematics.
(iv) The ______________ controls all voluntary activities.
(v) The spinal cord is a series of _______________ sections called segments.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Which is a function of the cerebrospinal fluid?

(i)

Acts as shock absorber

(ii)

Maintains constant pressure

(iii)

Enables exchange of nutrients

(iv)

All of these
Q-2 Which of the following is NOT a part of the Central Nervous System?

(i)

Cranial nerves

(ii)

Brain

(iii)

Spinal cord

(iv)

None of these
Q-3 Which of the following is NOT a part of the neuron?

(i)

Dendrites

(ii)

Axon

(iii)

Cyton

(iv)

Ganglion
Q-4 Which of the following controls emotional and intellectual processes?

(i)

Cerebrum

(ii)

Cerebellum

(iii)

Spinal cord

(iv)

Medulla oblongata
Q-5 Which of the following is NOT a component of the reflex arc?

(i)

Effector muscle

(ii)

Sensory neuron

(iii)

Receptor

(iv)

None of these
Q-6 The dorsal root ganglion does NOT contain :

(i)

Cell bodies

(ii)

Sensory neurons

(iii)

Motor neurons

(iv)

All of these
Q-7 The spinal nerve is connected to the spinal cord at points of attachment called:

(i)

Roots

(ii)

Fulcrum

(iii)

Pivot

(iv)

None of these
Q-8 A __________ action is a quick response to a stimulus, generally without the involvement of the brain.

(i)

Voluntary

(ii)

Involuntary

(iii)

Reflex

(iv)

Conscious
Q-9 Association neuron occurs between:

(i)

Sensory neuron and motor neuron

(ii)

Motor neuron and sensory neuron

(iii)

Ventral root and dorsal root

(iv)

None of these
Q-10 Which is a component of the brain?

(i)

Forebrain

(ii)

Midbrain

(iii)

Hindbrain

(iv)

All of these
Q-11 The _________ connects the two hemispheres of the brain.?

(i)

Corpus luteum

(ii)

Corpus callosum

(iii)

Hypothalmus

(iv)

None of these
Q-12 The right hemisphere of the brain is concerned with:

(i)

Musical and artistic awareness

(ii)

Science and mathematics

(iii)

Imagination and insight

(iv)

Both a and c
Q-13 The junction between two neurons is called

(i)

Synapse

(ii)

Joint

(iii)

Meeting point

(iv)

None of these
Q-14 Fine, slender fibres extending from the cell body of a nerve cell are called :

(i)

Axon

(ii)

Terminal branches

(iii)

Dendrites

(iv)

Ganglia
Q-15 A reflex action is a __________ response to a stimulus

(i)

Conscious

(ii)

Spontaneous

(iii)

Voluntary

(iv)

All of these
Q-16 Which of the following is NOT a part of the Central Nervous System?

(i)

Cranial nerves

(ii)

Brain

(iii)

Spinal cord

(iv)

None of these
Q-17 Which of the following is NOT a part of the neuron?

(i)

Dendrites

(ii)

Axon

(iii)

Cyton

(iv)

Ganglion
Q-18 Which is a function of the cerebrospinal fluid?

(i)

Acts as shock absorber

(ii)

Maintains constant pressure

(iii)

Enables exchange of nutrients

(iv)

All of these
Q-19 Which of the following controls emotional and intellectual processes?

(i)

Cerebrum

(ii)

Cerebellum

(iii)

Spinal cord

(iv)

Medulla oblongata
Q-20 Which of the following is NOT a component of the reflex arc?

(i)

Effector muscle

(ii)

Sensory neuron

(iii)

Receptor

(iv)

None of these
Q-21 The dorsal root ganglion does NOT contain :

(i)

Cell bodies

(ii)

Sensory neurons

(iii)

Motor neurons

(iv)

All of these
Q-22 The spinal nerve is connected to the spinal cord at points of attachment called:

(i)

Roots

(ii)

Fulcrum

(iii)

Pivot

(iv)

None of these
Q-23 A __________ action is a quick response to a stimulus, generally without the involvement of the brain.

(i)

Voluntary

(ii)

Involuntary

(iii)

Reflex

(iv)

Conscious
Q-24 Association neuron occurs between:

(i)

Sensory neuron and motor neuron

(ii)

Motor neuron and sensory neuron

(iii)

Ventral root and dorsal root

(iv)

None of these
Q-25 Which is a component of the brain?

(i)

Forebrain

(ii)

Midbrain

(iii)

Hindbrain

(iv)

All of these
Q-26 The _________ connects the two hemispheres of the brain.?

(i)

Corpus luteum

(ii)

Corpus callosum

(iii)

Hypothalmus

(iv)

None of these
Q-27 The right hemisphere of the brain is concerned with:

(i)

Musical and artistic awareness

(ii)

Science and mathematics

(iii)

Imagination and insight

(iv)

Both a and c
Q-28 The junction between two neurons is called

(i)

Synapse

(ii)

Joint

(iii)

Meeting point

(iv)

None of these
Q-29 Fine, slender fibres extending from the cell body of a nerve cell are called :

(i)

Axon

(ii)

Terminal branches

(iii)

Dendrites

(iv)

Ganglia
Q-30 A reflex action is a __________ response to a stimulus

(i)

Conscious

(ii)

Spontaneous

(iii)

Voluntary

(iv)

All of these
Chapter-7   Health and Hygiene
Q-1 Answer the following questions.

(1) Distinguish between an infectious and non-infectious disease and give two examples of each.

(2) a. List three ways we can protect ourselves from mosquito bites. b. With a view of eliminating mosquitoes, mention how: (i) Their breeding can be controlled. (ii) The adult mosquitoes can be killed on a large scale.

(3) Mention three ways to control the breeding of flies.

(4) What is meant by First Aid?

Q-2 Give one example of a disease caused by:
(i) Virus
( ii) Bacteria
(iii) Fungus
(iv) Protozoa
(v) Worms
Q-3 Name the vector that spread the following disease:
(i) Malaria
( ii) Dengue
(iii) Chikungunya
(iv) Plague
(v) Sleeping sickness
(vi) Amoebic dysentery
Q-4 Mention the chief symptoms of the following diseases:
(i) Malaria
(ii) Dengue
(iii) Chikungunya
(iv) AIDS
(v) Influenza
(vi) Measles
Q-5 State whether the following statements are true or false:
(i) Malarial parasites reproduce in the red blood cells of humans and destroy them .
(ii) Influenza is a bacterial disease characterised by fever, chills, muscular aches and pain.
(iii) AIDS is spread by sexual contact and blood transfusions.
(iv) Active immunisation involves the use of serum.
(v) The serum used against snake bites is called antiserum.
(vi) Caffeine and nicotine are hallucinogens.
(vii) The main symptoms of malaria are high fever, headache and violent shivering (rigours).
(viii) Amoebic dysentery is a water-borne disease.
(ix) Diabetes and scurvy are examples of infectious disease.
(x) Transmission of the disease takes place through direct contact or some medium like air, water, vectors.
Q-6 Fill in the blanks:
(i) Penicillin is an effective cure for diseases like _________ , _________ and ____________ .
(ii) Protection against tuberculosis includes immunisation by __________ vaccination and immunising of milking herds with _______ vaccine.
(iii) Triple vaccine is administered to protect against __________ , _________ and ___________ .
(iv) Sleeping sickness is spread by the _____________ , ____________ .
(v) Filaria is caused by the ____________ mosquito.
Q-7 List three harmful effects of consuming the following:
(i) Tobacco
(ii) Alcohol
(iii) Hallucinogens
Q-8 What first aid measure would you adopt in each of the following cases?
(i) Third degree burns due to fire
(ii) Mild bleeding from cut
(iii) Excessive bleeding due to accident
(iv) Sting of wasp
(v) Bee sting
(vi) Dog bite
(vii) Chemical burns
(viii) Snake bite
Q-9 Match the item in column A with item in column B.
Q-10 Answer the following questions.

(1) Distinguish between an infectious and non-infectious disease and give two examples of each.

(2) a. List three ways we can protect ourselves from mosquito bites. b. With a view of eliminating mosquitoes, mention how: (i) Their breeding can be controlled. (ii) The adult mosquitoes can be killed on a large scale.

(3) Mention three ways to control the breeding of flies.

(4) What is meant by First Aid?

Q-11 Give one example of a disease caused by:
(i) Virus
( ii) Bacteria
(iii) Fungus
(iv) Protozoa
(v) Worms
Q-12 Name the vector that spread the following disease:
(i) Malaria
( ii) Dengue
(iii) Chikungunya
(iv) Plague
(v) Sleeping sickness
(vi) Amoebic dysentery
Q-13 Mention the chief symptoms of the following diseases:
(i) Malaria
(ii) Dengue
(iii) Chikungunya
(iv) AIDS
(v) Influenza
(vi) Measles
Q-14 State whether the following statements are true or false:
(i) Malarial parasites reproduce in the red blood cells of humans and destroy them .
(ii) Influenza is a bacterial disease characterised by fever, chills, muscular aches and pain.
(iii) AIDS is spread by sexual contact and blood transfusions.
(iv) Active immunisation involves the use of serum.
(v) The serum used against snake bites is called antiserum.
(vi) Caffeine and nicotine are hallucinogens.
(vii) The main symptoms of malaria are high fever, headache and violent shivering (rigours).
(viii) Amoebic dysentery is a water-borne disease.
(ix) Diabetes and scurvy are examples of infectious disease.
(x) Transmission of the disease takes place through direct contact or some medium like air, water, vectors.
Q-15 Fill in the blanks:
(i) Penicillin is an effective cure for diseases like _________ , _________ and ____________ .
(ii) Protection against tuberculosis includes immunisation by __________ vaccination and immunising of milking herds with _______ vaccine.
(iii) Triple vaccine is administered to protect against __________ , _________ and ___________ .
(iv) Sleeping sickness is spread by the _____________ , ____________ .
(v) Filaria is caused by the ____________ mosquito.
Q-16 List three harmful effects of consuming the following:
(i) Tobacco
(ii) Alcohol
(iii) Hallucinogens
Q-17 What first aid measure would you adopt in each of the following cases?
(i) Third degree burns due to fire
(ii) Mild bleeding from cut
(iii) Excessive bleeding due to accident
(iv) Sting of wasp
(v) Bee sting
(vi) Dog bite
(vii) Chemical burns
(viii) Snake bite
Q-18 Match the item in column A with item in column B.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Active immunisation involves the use of:

(i)

Serums

(ii)

Vaccine

(iii)

Antibiotics

(iv)

None of these
Q-2 A disease may be caused due to:

(i)

Low immunity

(ii)

Infection

(iii)

Poor diet

(iv)

All of these
Q-3 Which of the following is an infectious disease?

(i)

Rickets

(ii)

Cataract

(iii)

Cancer

(iv)

None of these
Q-4 Which of the following is NOT an infectious disease?

(i)

Tuberculosis

(ii)

Covid-19

(iii)

Influenza

(iv)

Scurvy
Q-5 The mosquito that transmits malaria is:

(i)

Culex

(ii)

Aedes

(iii)

Female anopheles

(iv)

Both a and b
Q-6 Which disease is spread by the housefly?

(i)

Cholera

(ii)

Typhoid

(iii)

Dysentery

(iv)

All of these
Q-7 Which is a method to control spread of disease by houseflies?

(i)

Spray DDT

(ii)

Burn garbage

(iii)

Keep food covered

(iv)

All of these
Q-8 Which of the following reduces the risk of infections?

(i)

Drinking boiled water

(ii)

Drinking pasteurized milk

(iii)

Washing hands frequently with soap

(iv)

All of these
Q-9 Active, natural immunity is acquired:

(i)

After getting a disease

(ii)

After getting vaccinated

(iii)

By inoculating with serum

(iv)

All of the above
Q-10 The active component of the immune system are:

(i)

Leucocytes

(ii)

Erthrocytes

(iii)

Platelets

(iv)

All of these
Q-11 Serum provides:

(i)

Immediate and permanent immunity

(ii)

Immediate and temporary immunity

(iii)

Delayed and temporary immunity

(iv)

Delayed and permanent immunity
Q-12 Active immunisation involves the use of:

(i)

Serums

(ii)

Vaccine

(iii)

Antibiotics

(iv)

None of these
Q-13 The DPT vaccine is administered to provide immunity against:

(i)

Tuberculosis

(ii)

Whooping cough

(iii)

Typhoid

(iv)

Polio
Q-14 In treating burns, which of the following points of caution should be followed?

(i)

Clothing stuck to the wound should not be pulled away

(ii)

Do not open blisters.

(iii)

Do not smear the injury with petroleum ointment, butter or any greasy substance.

(iv)

All of these
Q-15 The First Aid for sting of bees is:

(i)

To wash the affected area with vinegar

(ii)

To wash the affected area with soap and water

(iii)

To administer an anti-venom serum

(iv)

None of the above
Q-16 A first degree burn is characterised by:

(i)

Reddening of skin

(ii)

Formation of blisters

(iii)

Charring of skin

(iv)

All of the above
Q-17 A disease may be caused due to:

(i)

Low immunity

(ii)

Infection

(iii)

Poor diet

(iv)

All of these
Q-18 Which of the following is an infectious disease?

(i)

Rickets

(ii)

Cataract

(iii)

Cancer

(iv)

None of these
Q-19 Which of the following is NOT an infectious disease?

(i)

Tuberculosis

(ii)

Covid-19

(iii)

Influenza

(iv)

Scurvy
Q-20 The mosquito that transmits malaria is:

(i)

Culex

(ii)

Aedes

(iii)

Female anopheles

(iv)

Both a and b
Q-21 Which disease is spread by the housefly?

(i)

Cholera

(ii)

Typhoid

(iii)

Dysentery

(iv)

All of these
Q-22 Which is a method to control spread of disease by houseflies?

(i)

Spray DDT

(ii)

Burn garbage

(iii)

Keep food covered

(iv)

All of these
Q-23 Which of the following reduces the risk of infections?

(i)

Drinking boiled water

(ii)

Drinking pasteurized milk

(iii)

Washing hands frequently with soap

(iv)

All of these
Q-24 Active, natural immunity is acquired:

(i)

After getting a disease

(ii)

After getting vaccinated

(iii)

By inoculating with serum

(iv)

All of the above
Q-25 The active component of the immune system are:

(i)

Leucocytes

(ii)

Erthrocytes

(iii)

Platelets

(iv)

All of these
Q-26 Serum provides:

(i)

Immediate and permanent immunity

(ii)

Immediate and temporary immunity

(iii)

Delayed and temporary immunity

(iv)

Delayed and permanent immunity
Q-27 The DPT vaccine is administered to provide immunity against:

(i)

Tuberculosis

(ii)

Whooping cough

(iii)

Typhoid

(iv)

Polio
Q-28 In treating burns, which of the following points of caution should be followed?

(i)

Clothing stuck to the wound should not be pulled away

(ii)

Do not open blisters.

(iii)

Do not smear the injury with petroleum ointment, butter or any greasy substance.

(iv)

All of these
Q-29 The First Aid for sting of bees is:

(i)

To wash the affected area with vinegar

(ii)

To wash the affected area with soap and water

(iii)

To administer an anti-venom serum

(iv)

None of the above
Q-30 A first degree burn is characterised by:

(i)

Reddening of skin

(ii)

Formation of blisters

(iii)

Charring of skin

(iv)

All of the above
Chapter-8   Food Production
Q-1 Answer the following questions.

(1) State two factors that make India a suitable country for agriculture.

(2) Explain why fermentation is a widely used process in the food industry.

(3) Name one bacteria and one fungus used to make fermented food.

(4) What are probiotics? List three advantages of consuming buttermilk.

(5) Cheese and wine, both are made by the process of fermentation. Explain why one uses bacteria and the other uses a fungus to carry out this process.

(6) State the difference between a cash crop and a food crop.

(7) What is the difference between a kharif crop and a rabi crop? Give three examples of each.

(8) Explain why legumes are rich in proteins.

Q-2 Name three plants that yield:
(i) Edible oil
(ii) Fibres
(iii) Timber
(iv) Beverages
(v) Spices
Q-3 Match the items in column A with the appropriate item in column B.
Q-4 Name the plant part used in the following spices:
(i) Cardamom
(ii) Clove
(iii) Black pepper
(iv) Cinnamon
(v) Fenugreek
(vi) Ginger
Q-5 Fill in the blanks:
(i) Spinach and lettuce are _______ vegetables.
(ii) The process of growing crops is called ___________ .
(iii) Spices are used for _______ food.
(iv) The faecal matter of birds is used as __________ .
(v) Food of pigs consist of ______________ , _____________ and ___________ .
(vi) Cow dung is used for the production of the fuel ___________ .
(vii) Goats and sheep are susceptible to _____________ .
(viii) Bees are the source of ______________ and ________________ .
(ix) A single pupa produces nearly _____________ m of silk thread.
(x) Fish liver oil is an important source of vitamin ______________ and vitamin ______________ .
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Which of the following is used to produce fermented food?

(i)

Yeast

(ii)

Aspergillus

(iii)

Lactobacillus

(iv)

All of these
Q-2 Probiotic bacteria are the good bacteria found in:

(i)

The intestines

(ii)

Fermented food

(iii)

Supplements

(iv)

All of the above
Q-3 Saprophytic soil bacteria act as:

(i)

Consumers

(ii)

Producers

(iii)

Decomposers

(iv)

All of these
Q-4 Mushrooms are a good source of :

(i)

Copper and tin

(ii)

Copper and potassium

(iii)

Sodium and potassium

(iv)

Gold and silver
Q-5 Fermentation by yeast produces ______________ and by bacteria produces

(i)

Carbon dioxide, ethyl alcohol

(ii)

Ethyl alcohol, lactic acid

(iii)

Lactic acid, ethyl alcohol

(iv)

Lactic acid, carbon dioxide
Q-6 Fungus of genus ___________ are used in flavouring cheese:

(i)

Penicillium

(ii)

Aspergillus

(iii)

Mycelium

(iv)

Both a and b
Q-7 Select the true statement with reference to farming techniques:

(i)

Soil bed must be ploughed and levelled before sowing the seed

(ii)

Soil should be well irrigated

(iii)

Harmful weeds must be removed

(iv)

All of above are true statements
Q-8 Which of the following is a cash crop?

(i)

Oilseeds

(ii)

Rubber

(iii)

Cotton

(iv)

All of these
Q-9 Rhizobium is a _________ bacteria living in the root nodules of leguminous plants.

(i)

Parasitic

(ii)

Saprophytic

(iii)

Symbiotic

(iv)

None of the above
Q-10 Which is NOT a rabi crop?

(i)

Wheat

(ii)

Oats

(iii)

Mustard

(iv)

Rice
Q-11 The Green Revolution was led by _____________ and White Flood by ______________ .

(i)

Dr MS Swaminathan, Dr Kurien

(ii)

Dr Kurien, Dr MS Swaminathan

(iii)

Dr MS Ranganathan, Dr Kurien

(iv)

Dr MS Subramaniam, Dr Cherian
Q-12 Which of these is a chemical fertiliser?

(i)

Green manure

(ii)

Urea

(iii)

Compost

(iv)

Cow dung
Q-13 Animal bones are used for making:

(i)

Glue

(ii)

Poultry feed

(iii)

Buttons

(iv)

All of these
Q-14 Which of these is an indigenous breed reared for milk production?

(i)

Red Sindhi

(ii)

Sahiwal

(iii)

Karan-Fries

(iv)

Both a and b
Q-15 Which of these is an indigenous breed of hens reared for egg laying?

(i)

Brahma

(ii)

White leghorn

(iii)

Basera

(iv)

Both a and c