Question bank

Chapter-1   History: Our Past
Q-1

Match the following columns:
Q-2

Write True or False for each of the following statements.
(1) Herodotus was the inventor of the term History.
(2) Traveller's accounts are a part of literary sources.
(3) The Arthashastra was written by Kalidasa.
(4) The old buildings of historical importance are called monuments.
(5) History helps us to know about our future.
Q-3

Answer the following questions in brief:
(1) What is history?
(2) What are the two main sources of history?
(3) Name the place where the ancient paintings have been found.
(4) What is meant by secular literature?
(5) Who was Megasthenese? Name the account written by him. 
Q-4

Answer the following questions in detail:
(1) What is the difference between BC and AD?
(2) Discuss the effects of geography on the history of India.
(3) What is the meaning of periods of recorded history?
(4) Discuss in brief the sources for knowing the past.
(5) Why is it important to study history?
(6) How is religious literature different from secular literature?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 

'Abhigyan Shakuntalam' was written by:

(i)

Kalidasa

(ii)

Maharishi Valmiki

(iii)

Ved Vyasa

(iv)

Panini

Q-2 

Our two great epics are:

(i)

Puranas and Vedas

(ii)

Mahabharata and Jatakas

(iii)

Ramayana and Mahabharata

(iv)

Tripitakas and Jatakas

Chapter-2   The Earliest Societies
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
(a) Altamira caves are found in _______________.
(b) The Palaeolithic man first learnt to ____________.
(c) The Palaeolithic man was first a ____________.
(d) The tools of the Mesolithic Age were called _____________.
(e) The Palaeolithic man used to _______his dead.
Q-2 True or False:
(a) During the Palaeolithic Age man used fine tools made of metals.
(b) Humans were food gatherers during the Mesolithic Age.
(c) In the Palaeolithic Age man began to live in mud houses.
(d) Palaeolithic is a Greek word.
Q-3 One word answer:
(a) Period of man's history for which no written record is available.
(b) Scholars who study human race and societies.
(c) The early Stone Age when man led the life of a food gatherer and hunter.
(d) People who move with their belongings and animals from place to place and have no permanent home.
Q-4

Answer the following questions in short:
(1) Name the different periods of the Stone Age in their proper chronological order.
(2) What was man's first major discovery? What were its main uses?
(3) How did the Palaeolithic man discover fire?
(4) Why do we call the Palaeolithic man a food gatherer?
(5) Why is the Palaeolithic man called a nomad?
(6) What were the religious beliefs of the Palaeolithic man?
Q-5

Answer the following questions in detail:
(1) Describe the life of a Palaeolithic man.
(2) Write a brief note on the art and painting of Palaeolithic man.
(3) What do you know about the Mesolithic Age?
(4) How were microliths useful to Mesolithic man?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The main sites of Palaeolithic Age are _______.

(i)

Tanjore

(ii)

Kadur

(iii)

both of these
Q-2 Old stone implements have also been found in _________.

(i)

Bengal

(ii)

Gujarat

(iii)

Both of these
Q-3 Flake tools Like choppers and cleavers were made from the _______.

(i)

sharp pieces that broke off while shaping core tools

(ii)

stones

(iii)

metals
Q-4 ________ was a pear shape tool with sharp edges on the sides.

(i)

Cleaver

(ii)

Hand axe

(iii)

Chopper
Chapter-3   The First Farmers and Herders
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
(a) The first animal to be domesticated was the _____________.
(b) Baked vessels were necessary for storing _______________.
(c) Man changed from hunter to farmer during _____________.
(d) The man of Neolithic Age was afraid of ______________.
(e) The New Stone Age is known as the _________
Q-2 True or False:
(a) Man became a food producer in the New Stone Age.
(b) The tools of the Neolithic Man were of very poor quality.
(c) In the Chalcolithic stage, man used both stone and copper tools.
(d) The first metal to be discovered was bronze.
Q-3 One word answer:
(a) Growing of crops and plants.
(b) Using animals as domestic pets.
(c) Process of taming a population of animals or a species as a whole.
(d) Term used for the progress made by ancient man from nomadic to a settled agrarian life.
Q-4

Match the following columns correctly:
Q-5

Answer the following questions :
(1) How did man become a farmer from a hunter?
(2) What were the achievements of the Neolithic Age?
(3) What were the main changes in the Chalcolithic Age?
(4) What kind of work did people do in the Neolithic Age?
(5) How did farming and herding change man's life?
(6) How did people treat their dead in the Neolithic Age?
Q-6

Distinguish between :
(1) Palaeolithic Age and Neolithic Age
(2) Food gatherer and food producer
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The first animal to be tamed was ___________.

(i)

the goat as we know today

(ii)

the dog as we know today

(iii)

the dog’s wild ancestor
Q-2 Which of these Is the correct order of what early man did?

(i)

skilled-gatherers → hunter → gatherers → herders

(ii)

hunter → gatherers skilled → gatherers → herders

(iii)

herders → skilled → gatherers → hunter→ gatherers
Q-3 Which was not a way of storing grains in the early days?

(i)

boxes

(ii)

Woven Baskets

(iii)

Clay pots
Q-4 Grains like wheat and barley have been found in _________.

(i)

Koldihwa

(ii)

Mahagara

(iii)

Mehrgarh
Chapter-4   The First Cities (Harappan Civilisation) (2500 BC to - 1500 BC)
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
(a) The city of Harappa was situated in present _____________.
(b) The houses in Harappan cities were built of ________________.
(c) The grain was stored in the _________.
(d) The Indus Valley civilisation arose on the banks of the river ________________.
(e) The citadel belonged to the ____ part of Mohenjodaro.
Q-2 True or False:
(a) The earliest cities developed on the river banks.
(b) In 1930 the ruins of Mohenjodaro were discovered.
(c) The upper part of the Harappa city was built on a raised ground.
(d) A dockyard has been found at Lothal.
(e) All the people took bath in the Great Bath.
Q-3 One word answer:
(a) An object believed to protect one from evil influence.
(b) A fort like structure built on a raised platform.
(c) A place where ships are built, repaired and loaded and unloaded.
(d) The lower area between hills with a river flowing through it.
Q-4

Match the following columns:
Q-5

Answer the following questions :
(1) Why do we call the Harappan civilisation the first civilisation in India?
(2) Write a short note on the chief buildings in the citadel. 
(3) What were the main items of food of the Harappan people?
(4) When and where did the Harappan civilisation flourish?
(5) When did the earliest cities come into existence? Write the names of any five such cities.
(6) Describe the plan of the city of Mohenjodaro.
(7) Throw some light on the town planning of the Indus Valley people.
(8) What were the causes of the decline of the Harappan civilisation?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The Great Bath has been discovered in ___________.

(i)

Lothal

(ii)

Harappa

(iii)

Mohenjodaro
Q-2 Which of these groups of people did not usually live in cities, but the countryside?

(i)

rulers

(ii)

farmers and herders

(iii)

craftspersons
Q-3 The alloy of tin and _________ is called bronze.

(i)

zinc

(ii)

copper

(iii)

none of these
Q-4 The city of Lothal was situated beside a river which was a tributary of __________.

(i)

Ganga

(ii)

Sabarmati

(iii)

Narmada
Chapter-5   Different Ways of life
Q-1

Match the following columns:
Q-2

Answer the following questions in short:
(1) Which period of Indian history do we call the Vedic Age and why?
(2) In what manner did the Aryans come into India?
(3) Why is the Early Vedic period also called the Rigvedic period?
(4) What were the two main occupations of the Rigvedic Aryans?
(5) What were the amusements of the early Aryans?
(6) What do you know about the dress of the early Aryans?
(7) What is the meaning of 'Ved'?
(8) Name the four Vedas and write one sentence about each of them.
Q-3

Answer the following questions in detail:
(1) Write an account of the Sabha and the Samiti.
(2) What was the position of women in the Rig Vedic society?
(3) Mention two forces of nature which were worshipped by the early Aryans.
(4) Describe the four classes into which the early Aryan society was divided into. 
(5) What were the main occupations of the Vedic people?
(6) What position did the women enjoy in the Vedic Age?
(7) How would you distinguish the Rigvedic civilisation from the Indus valley civilisation?
(8) Describe the social life of the Rigvedic people with particular reference to their social life, food, dress and amusements. 
Q-4 Fill in the blanks:
(a) Gold ornaments have been found in the ___________ settlement.
(b) Copper was found in the mines of ___________.
(c) The early Aryans lived in ____________.
(d) The Gayatri Mantra is related with ___________.
(f) The ____ was the assembly of the selected people of the whole tribe.
(g) The Aryans first settled in ___________
(h) The ____ is concerned with upasana communication with God.
Q-5 True or False:
(a) The Rigveda is the earliest record of the Aryan culture.
(b) The Aryans in the early Vedic period used iron ploughs.
(c) The Rigvedic Aryans did not worship idols.
(d) The Vedic literature was written in Vedic Sanskrit.
(e) There was caste system during the early Aryan period.
(f) The Aryans worshipped the nature gods.
Q-6 One word answer:
(a) A popular assembly of the whole tribe in the Rigvedic period.
(b) The assembly of elders in the Rigvedic period.
(c) The eldest male member in the family.
(d) The head of the village in the Rigvedic period.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The Ghoda is a tributary of the _________.

(i)

Ganga

(ii)

Narmada

(iii)

Krishna
Q-2 Brahmagiri is a site in modem __________.

(i)

Andhra Pradesh

(ii)

Kerala

(iii)

Uttar Pradesh
Q-3 Which of these was not a category of people in the society?

(i)

Shudra

(ii)

Brahmin

(iii)

Raja
Q-4 The _____ lays down the procedures for various ceremonies and rituals.

(i)

Rigveda

(ii)

Samveda

(iii)

Yajurveda
Chapter-6   Early States
Q-1

Match the following columns:
Q-2

Answer the following questions in detail:
(1) State the main differences between a republic and a kingdom in ancient India.
(2) What is meant by the Gurukul system?
(3) Describe the kingdom of Vaishali.
Q-3

Answer the following questions in short:
(1) Name the two main sources of information of the period between 1600 BC and 400 BC.
(2) Mention the names of one ruler each of Videha and Magadha.
(3) How do you define the term 'Janapada'?
(4) Why is Vaishali known as an important centre of pilgrimage?
(5) Where was the Magadha empire established?
Q-4

Name each of the following:
(1) Four important janapadas of the 6th century BC. 
(2) Three centres of learning, which acquired prominence in the period from 6th to 4th century BC.
(3) Three main items of trade between Magadha and the rest of the world.
(4) Name three ancient centres of education.
Q-5 Fill in the blanks:
(a) In the Gurukul system, a child lived with his _________________.
(b) Mahajanapada of Avanti was in ______________.
(c) The two great religions started from ____________.
(d) Gandhara is modern day ____________.
(e) Buddhist and Jain literature shows that around 600 BC, the whole of Northern India was divided into ___ kingdoms. 
Q-6 True or False:
(a) Around 6th century BC, there were 16 Mahajanapadas in the valley of Ganga.
(b) A monarchial mahajanapada was ruled by elected people.
(c) The grihastha stage was for meditation.
(d) Sakyas of Vaishali was a republic.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The ‘Ashvamedha’ was the sacrifice of ________.

(i)

horse

(ii)

cow

(iii)

bull
Q-2 The two words that constitute the word ‘janapada’ mean:

(i)

citizens and foot

(ii)

woman and foot

(iii)

men and hand
Q-3 Which of these was usually fortified?

(i)

all cities in ‘mahajanapadas’

(ii)

all cities in ‘janapadas’

(iii)

capital cities of ‘mahajanapadas’
Q-4 One-sixth of the produce was taken as tax from __________.

(i)

farmers

(ii)

hunter-gatherers

(iii)

crafts-persons
Chapter-7   New Ideas
Q-1

Match the following columns:
Q-2

Answer the following questions in short:
(1) What is the 'Eight Fold Path'?
(2) Name a few countries where Buddhism spread.
(3) What is the meaning of 'Upanishad'?
(4) Mention the factors responsible for the rise of Jainism and Buddhism.
(5) What do you know about the life of Vardhman Mahavira?
(6) Describe briefly the teachings of Jainism.
(7) Give a short account of the life of Lord Buddha.
(8) List the teachings of Lord Buddha.
Q-3

Distinguish between:
(1) Buddhism and Jainism
(2) Shwetambaras and Digambaras
(3) Moksha and Nirvana
Q-4 Fill in the blanks:
(a) The word 'Upanishad' literally means ______________.
(b) Buddha was the prince of _____________.
(c) Siddhartha was married to ______________.
(d) Buddha delivered his first sermon at _______________.
(e) The father of Mahavira was the head of a ____________
(f) When Siddhartha left his home, the event is known as _____________
Q-5 True or False:
(a) Gautam Buddha had a son named Rahul.
(b) The tree under which Buddha attained enlightenment is called Peepal tree.
(c) Jainism suggests three jewels to achieve moksha from the cycle of birth and death.
(d) Buddha and Mahavira preached in Sanskrit.
(e) Buddhism and Jainism tried to do away with the evils of the Vedic religion.
Q-6 One word answer:
(a) Sitting at the feet of the guru.
(b) Freedom from the cycle of birth and death.
(c) Salvation of an individual from death and birth.
(d) Jains who wear white clothes.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Buddhism was found by ______.

(i)

Mahavira

(ii)

Zoroaster

(iii)

Ramkrishna Paramhansa
Q-2 Jainism was founded by ________.

(i)

Mahavira

(ii)

Buddha

(iii)

none of these
Q-3 The Vinaya Pitaka is a sacred text of ________.

(i)

the Buddhists

(ii)

the Jainas

(iii)

the Hindus
Q-4 Buddha used ____________ to communicate with people.

(i)

Prakrit

(ii)

Sanskrit

(iii)

none of these
Chapter-8   The First Empire: Mauryan Empire
Q-1

Match the following columns:
Q-2 Fill in the blanks:
(a) Chandragupta's chief minister _____________ wrote the Arthashastra.
(b) _________________is a part of our national flag.
(c) The best known stupas of Ashoka's reign is at ______________.
(d) Chandragupta defeated ______________.
(e) Ashoka's appointed new officials, called the __________ to preach his Dhamma.
(f) The author of lndica is _________
(g) The capital of Mauryan empire was ______________
(h) The founder of Mauryan empire was ________
(i) The Kalinga war was fought in ___________ BC.
(j) Patliputra is situated in ____________
Q-3 True or False:
(a) Ashoka's empire included the kingdoms of the far or extreme south.
(b) Seleucus sent the Greek ambassador, Megasthenes, to the court of Chandragupta Maurya.
(c) The edicts of Ashoka are written in Sanskrit language.
(d) Kalinga was conquered in 281 BC.
(e) Chandragupta was the founder of Mauryan dynasty. 
Q-4 One word answer:
(a) A group of provinces ruled under a single supreme ruler.
(b) A statement issued by the government for the public.
(c) Dome like structures where Buddhist monks lived.
(d) Structures in which monks lived and prayed.
Q-5

Answer the following questions in one or two lines:
(1). Who was the founder of the great Mauryan empire?
(2) Who was Ashoka the Great?
(3) What do you understand by Dhamma?
(4) What is the importance of Ashoka's edicts?
(5) Name the books that are the main sources for the study of the Mauryas.
Q-6

Answer the following questions in short:
(1) Write a short note on Alexander the Great.
(2) Who was Seleucus? What were his terms of surrender to Chandragupta Maurya?
(3) Indicate the three main sources of history of the Mauryan period. 
(4) State two causes of the downfall of the Mauryan empire.
(5) Write two important features of the pillars of Ashoka.
(6) Give two reasons for the prosperity of the Mauryan empire.
(7) Where did Ashoka send his missions to?
Q-7

Answer the following questions in detail:
(1) Who was Chandragupta Maurya? How did he lay the foundation of the Mauryan dynasty?
(2) The Kalinga war was the turning point in the life of Ashoka. Explain.
(3) How did Ashoka promote Buddhism?
(4) Write ten sentences on the art and architecture of the Mauryas.
(5) Give an account of the salient features of Ashoka's reign.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Which are the animals shown in our national Emblem?

(i)

Goats

(ii)

Lions

(iii)

Bulls
Q-2 How many lions are shown in our national Emblem?

(i)

two

(ii)

three

(iii)

four
Q-3 What was the name of grandfather of Ashoka?

(i)

Krishna

(ii)

Mahavira

(iii)

Chandragupta Maurya
Q-4 Who was supported by a wise man named Chanakya?

(i)

Chandragupta

(ii)

Bindusar

(iii)

Ashoka
Chapter-9   Early Middle Kingdoms: The Golden Age
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
(a) The capital of the Pandya kingdom was at ____________.
(b) A port town in Pandya Kingdom was ___________.
(c) The Pandyans Kingdom was famous for ____________.
(d) He was known as the Lord of South _____________.
Q-2 True or False:
(a) The king was assisted by a council of ministers.
(b) The Cheras were one of the ruling dynasties of the Sangam age who ruled over parts of Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
(c) The Chola kingdom was situated between the Pennar and the Velur rivers.
(d) The Pandya empire was founded by a men ruler.
Q-3 One word answer:
(a) A title which kings of the north India used for themselves.
(b) Skilled workers who practice some trade or handicraft.
(c) Literary assemblies of poets held in South India.
Q-4

Match the following columns:
Q-5

Answer the following questions in short:
(1) Who was Pushyamitra Sunga?
(2) What do you know about 'Sangam Literature'?
(3) Name two important kings of the Chola dynasty.
(4) How many poems were composed during the last Sangam assembly?
Q-6

Answer the following questions in detail:
(1) Briefly discuss the Satavahana administration.
(2) What do you know about the Sangam Age?
(3) Briefly discuss the life of the people under the Cholas, the Pandayas and the Cheras.
(4) Write short note on: (a) Karikala , (b) Gautamiputra Satakarni, (c) The Pandyas, (d) Sangam literature
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 ____________ was a powerful ruler of his dynasty.

(i)

Ashvamedha Yajna

(ii)

Vasudeva

(iii)

Pushyamitra Sunga
Q-2 The Sunga and Kanava dynasties were unable to make a strong hold ___________ India.

(i)

northern

(ii)

eastern

(iii)

western
Q-3 _________ were societies or academies of learned people.

(i)

Dynasties

(ii)

Sangams

(iii)

none of these
Q-4 The Sangam age produced a huge volume of _________ poetry.

(i)

English

(ii)

Hindi

(iii)

Tamil
Chapter-10   Contacts With Distant Lands
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
(a) The capital of Kanishka was ___________.
(b) Kanishka was a great ___________.
(c) Nagasena is also known as ___________.
(d) Ashvaghosha was in the court of _____________.
(e) ______________ kingdom was once ruled by a woman.
Q-2 True or False:
(a) Menander was a Parthian.
(b) The Sakas are also called the Kushanas.
(c) Charaka was a great Indian physician.
(d) Ashvaghosha was a great Buddhist scholar.
(e) Orthodox Buddhism was called the Mahayana.
(f) Kanishka'a capital was at Purushpura.
(g) The Saka era was started by the Parth ians.
Q-3 One word answer:
(a) The Lesser Vehicle (the original form of Buddhism).
(b) The Greater Vehicle (the new form of Buddhism).
(c) The trade route between China and West Asian Rome that passed through Central Asia.
(d) A governing system where kingdom was divided into provinces.
Q-4

Match the following columns:
Q-5

Answer the following questions in short.
(1) Name the capital of Kanishka's kingdom.
(2) Where did Kanishka call the Fourth Buddhist council?
(3) To which sect of Buddhism was Kanishka related?
(4) Who is the author of 'Buddha Charita'?
(5) Who was Nagarjuna?
(6) Who was Charakka?
Q-6

Answer the following questions in detail.
(1) Write an account of Menander.
(2) Write a note on the system of government under the Sakas.
(3) Write about the achievements of Kanishka.
(4) What were the differences between the Gandhara and Mathura Schools of Art?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The Mauryan rulers were succeded by the __________ and the Kanavas.

(i)

Kauravas

(ii)

Pandavas

(iii)

Sungas
Q-2 The first to invade India were the _________.

(i)

Indians

(ii)

Greeks

(iii)

English
Q-3 The Greeks were followed by the ________ who came from eastern Iran.

(i)

Sakas

(ii)

Kauravas

(iii)

Pandavas
Q-4 The '__________' introduced the 'Satrap' system of government.

(i)

Kauravas

(ii)

Sakas

(iii)

none of these
Chapter-11   Political Development (Gupta Empire)
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
(a) The author of Allahabad Pillar inscription was ______________.
(b) A person who travels to a holy place is called a __________.
(c) The ruler who titled himself as Vikramaditya is ____________.
(d) The greatest ruler of the Gupta dynasty was _____________.
(e) ______________invaded India during the reign of Kumaragupta.
Q-2 True or False:
(a) The age of Gupta dynasty is called the Golden age of Indian history.
(b) Samudragupta was succeeded by Skandagupta.
(c) Kalidasa was a great Sanskrit author and poet.
(d) Fa-Hien was a Greek pilgrim.
(e) The Lichchahvi princess Kumara Devi was the wife of Samudragupta.
Q-3 One word answer:
(a) Union by marriage or treaty.
(b) A piece of writing on a hard surface.
(c) Horse sacrifice indicating the supremacy of a ruler over other rulers.
(d) Person who gives support and shelter for a cause.
Q-4

Match the following columns:
Q-5

Answer the following questions in short:
(1) What do you know about Chandragupta I? 
(2) Write a brief note on Samudragupta.
(3) Who assumed the title of Vikramaditya?
(4) What was the aim of Fa-Hien's visit to India?
(5) Why is the third century AD called the 'Dark Age' of ancient Indian History?
(6) Who was Kumara Devi?
(7) Which inscription throws light on Samudragupta's conquests and personal qualities?
(8) Why is Samudragupta called the 'Indian Nepoleon'?
(9) Who was Fa-Hien?
Q-6

Answer the following questions in detail:
(1) Who was the founder of the Gupta empire? When and how did he found this empire?
(2) Give an account of the Gupta administration and society as described by Fa-Hien.
(3) Why is the Gupta Age called the Golden age of the ancient history of India?
(4) Discuss the progress made in the field of science, technology, art and architecture during the Gupta period.
Q-7

Write the periods of following Gupta rulers:
(1) Chandragupta I
(2) Samudragupta
(3) Chandragupta II
(4) Kumargupta
(5) Skandagupta
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The __________ kingdom was set up in about 300 AD at Kanchi (Kanjeevaram, near Chennai).

(i)

Pallava

(ii)

Kshatriya

(iii)

none of these
Q-2 Pallavas fought many wars against the Pandyas and the ___________.

(i)

Chalukyas

(ii)

Guptas

(iii)

none of these
Q-3 Narasimhavarman I was the greatest ruler of the Pallavas.

(i)

Mahendravarman I

(ii)

Pulakeshin II

(iii)

Narasimhavarman I
Q-4 Hiuen Tsang visited Kanchi during the reign of _______.

(i)

Narasimhavarman I

(ii)

Mahendravarman I
Chapter-12   Political Development - Harshvardhana
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
(a) Rajyashri was the sister of ___________.
(b) Grahavarman was the ruler of ________________.
(c) The capital of the Vardhanas was ____________.
(d) Banabhatta was the court poet of _____________.
(e) Harshvardhana was a great ruler of the _________ dynasty
Q-2 True or False:
(a) Harsha ascended the throne at the age of 17 years.
(b) Su-yu-ki is a book written by Fa-Hien.
(c) Fa-Hien visited India during Harsha's time.
(d) Hiuen Tsang was a Chinese pilgrim.
(e) Harsha called the Kanauj assembly to honour himself.
Q-3 One word answer:
(a) A woman whose husband is dead.
(b) Chinese word which means 'Records of the western world'
(c) Increasing strength.
(d) The act of acceding, coming to an office.
Q-4

Match the following columns:
Q-5

Answer the following questions in short:
(1) Who was Hiuen Tsang?
(2) Who was Rajyashri?
(3) Who was Grahavarman?
Q-6

Answer the following questions in detail:
(1) Why did Harshavardhana shift his capital?
(2) Why did Harsha not extend his empire to the Deccan?
(3) What were the conquests of Harsha?
(4) Harsha was a great scholar. Explain.
(5) What did Hiuen - Tsang write about Harsha's society?
(6) What were the military campaigns of Harsha?
Q-7

Answer the following questions in 30 to 40 words:
(1) How did Harshvardhana become the ruler of Kanauj?
(2) With which countries did Harsha have diplomatic relations?
(3) How do we know that Harsha was a great patron of learning?
(4) Why is Harshavardhana called the 'Indian Hatim'?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The first ruler of the Gupta dynasty who adopted the grand title of maharaj- adhiraja was _________.

(i)

Samudragupta

(ii)

Chandragupta

(iii)

Skandhagupta
Q-2 The dynasty of the Vardhanas ruled at ________.

(i)

Thanesar

(ii)

Tamil Nadu

(iii)

none of these
Q-3 Prabhakar Vardhana had _____ sons and one daughter.

(i)

three

(ii)

two

(iii)

four
Q-4 _______ was a great patron of art and literature.

(i)

Harsha

(ii)

Sati

(iii)

Banabhatta
Chapter-13   Political Development - Pallavas and Chalukyas
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
(a) The Rath Temple was built by the _____________.
(b) The devotee of Lord Shiva was known as_________________.
(c) Narsimhavarman was the ruler of ______________.
(d) The devotees of Lord Vishnu were called ____________.
(e) The capital of the Chalukays was _____________
(f) Pulkeshin II was defeated and killed by ____________
(g) ______________a Chinese traveller, visited the court of Pulkeshin II.
Q-2 True or False:
(a) The Tamil saints were patronised by the Chalukya rulers.
(b) The rock cut temples of Mahabalipuram, near Chennai were built by the Pallavas.
(c) The Pallava king Mahendravarman was a worshipper of Shiva.
(d) Hieun Tsang visited the Chalukya and the Pallava kingdoms.
Q-3 One word answer:
(a) The Tamil saints of South India who were the followers of Lord Vishnu.
(b) Tamil saints of South India who were followers of Lord Shiva.
(c) A person who supports and encourages someone for a cause.
(d) Temples chiselled out of huge rocks.
Q-4

Answer the following questions in short:
(1) In which year and where was the Pallava kingdom set up?
(2) Who was the greatest ruler of the Pallavas?
(3) Which was the reputed seat of learning in the South?
(4) Who was Dandin?
(5) Who was the founder the Chalukya dynasty?
(6) Who was the greatest ruler of the Chalukya dynasty?
Q-5

Math the following columns:
Q-6

Answer the following questions in detail:
(1) Who was the most powerful king of the Chalukya dynasty? Give the names of any two kings defeated by him.
(2) Who were the Pallavas? What were their achievements in the field of architecture?
(3) The Pallavas were great patrons of art. Discuss.
(4) What do you know about the literature of the Pal lava period?
(5) What do you know about Pulakeshin II?
(6) Write a short note on art and architecture under the Chalukayas.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The ________ rulers were great patrons of architecture and sculpture.

(i)

Gupta

(ii)

Chalukya

(iii)

Pallava
Q-2 Kanchi was a reputed seat of learning in _________ India.

(i)

West

(ii)

South

(iii)

North
Q-3 The founder of the _________ dynasty was Pulkeshin I.

(i)

Pallava

(ii)

Chalukya

(iii)

Gupta
Q-4 _________ was the capital of Chalukyas.

(i)

Vietnam

(ii)

Vatapi

(iii)

none of these
Chapter-14   Culture and Science
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
(a) The epic Ramayana was composed by ___________.
(b) The Bhagvad Gita is a part of ____________.
(c) Ved Vyasa has composed the epic ______________.
(d) Meghdoot was written by ____________.
(e) First ancient, residential university of the world was at _____________
Q-2 True or False:
(a) Ashoka built a large number of Stupas and Viharas.
(b) In Garbhagriha, people assemble for a meeting.
(c) The Nalanda University was built by Gupta rulers.
(d) Aryabhatta explained the cause of eclipses.
(e) Panini was the great grammarian of the 5th century BC
Q-3 One word answer:
(a) A set of running comments on a book, etc.
(b) The science of sound.
(c) Pertaining to do or done with the hands.
(d) Mounds containing remains of Buddha.
Q-4

Match the following columns:
Q-5

Answer the following questions in short:
(1) What are the Vedas?
(2) Write the names of two secular texts of ancient India.
(3) What are Stupas and Chaityas?
(4) What are the Upanishads?
(5) What is the importance of epics?
(6) Which literature gives an account of South India?
(7) Write the names of four Vedas.
(8) Which Veda is the most ancient?
(9) Write the name of six Vedangas.
(10) What is the use of Vedangas?
(11) Who was the great teacher of Buddhism?
Q-6

Answer the following questions in detail:
(1) Who was Aryabhatta? What was his contribution to science?
(2) What were the achievements made by Indians in the field of medicine?
(3) What have been India's contributions in the field of mathematics?
(4) What is the significance of the Gupta age in the field of architecture?
(5) Write a short note on the Tamil literature.
Q-7

Distinguish between:
(1) The Jataka tales and the Pitikas
(2) The Yajurveda and the Atharvaveda
(3) Brahmanas and Aranyakas
(4) The Srautasutras and the Grihyasutras
(5) The Ramayana and the Mahabharata
Q-8

Define the following:
(1) Astronomy
(2) Phonetics
(3) Grammar
(4) Etymology
(5) Hymns
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 ________ is the motherland of our race.

(i)

UK

(ii)

India

(iii)

USA
Q-2 The __________ literature is very rich and old as compared to the literature of any other country in the world.

(i)

UK

(ii)

USA

(iii)

Indian
Q-3 The word 'Veda' means ___________.

(i)

knowledge

(ii)

information

(iii)

none of these
Q-4 There are ________ great epics.

(i)

two

(ii)

three

(iii)

four
Chapter-15   The Earth in the Solar System
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
(a)_______________ is the brightest planet in the solar system.
(b) The second largest planet of solar system is _____________.
(c) ___________is a group of seven stars.
(d) Meteor fragments that reach the ground are known as ___________.
(e) Saturn looks beautiful because of its ________ around it.
Q-2 True or False:
(a) The Sun is the ultimate source of heat and light for the solar system.
(b) Mercury is the brightest planet in the solar system.
(c) Stars have their own light and heat.
(d) Halley's comet visits the Earth regularly and it is visible once in 76 years.
(e) Planets have their own heat and light.
Q-3 One word answer:
(a) A group of stars having a certain form and shape.
(b) The Sun and its family of planets, satellites, etc.
(c) A heavenly body that revolves around a planet.
(d) A swarm of small rock pieces scattered between Mars and Jupiter.
Q-4

Answer in one word or one sentence.
(1) What do we call a group of stars forming a definite pattern?
(2) Define a meteorite.
(3) Define the universe.
(4) What do you mean by the solar system?
Q-5

Answer the following questions in short:
(1) What are 'celestial bodies'?
(2) What do you mean by 'shooting stars'?
(3) What do you mean by 'Asteroids'?
(4) Give a brief description about 'Meteoroids'.
(5) What do you understand by a 'Comet'?
Q-6

Answer the following questions in detail:
(1) What do you mean by a 'Galaxy'? Give a brief description of the Milky way Galaxy.
(2) Explain the phases of Moon with a suitable diagram.
(3) Describe the concept of a constellation.
(4) Why is the Earth considered a unique planet?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 _______ are the twinkling objects in the sky.

(i)

Crystals

(ii)

Stars

(iii)

Satellites
Q-2 The Sun, the moon and all those objects shining in the night sky are called __________.

(i)

satellites

(ii)

celestial bodies

(iii)

constellation
Q-3 Our sun belongs to a galaxy called the _________ Galaxy

(i)

constellation

(ii)

Milky Way

(iii)

none of these
Q-4 The ______ is the centre of the solar system.

(i)

Mercury

(ii)

Venus

(iii)

Sun
Chapter-16   Globe: Latitudes and Longitudes
Q-1

Answer the following questions in short:
(1) What do you mean by Indian Standard Time?
(2) What do you understand by time zones?
(3) Give any two uses of latitudes.
(4) What is the significance of the Equator?
(5) What is meant by Meridian?
Q-2

Answer the following questions in detail:
(1) Give details about the lines of latitude. 
(2) How can we locate a place on the globe with the help of lines of longitudes and latitude? Explain it with a suitable diagram.
(3) Describe the heat zones of the Earth with the help of a diagram.
(4) Why has 82°30'E longitude been selected as the Standard Meridian for India?
Q-3

Answer in one word or one sentence:
(1) What do you mean by local time?
(2) What is the Equator?
(3) Name the longitude on which International Date line is located.
(4) What is a globe?
(5) Why does Russia have 11 time zones?
Q-4

Distinguish between:
(1) Local Time and Standard Time
(2) Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn
Q-5 Fill in the blanks:
(a)_________________ divides the Earth into northern hemisphere and southern hemisphere.
(b) The longitude considered as the Standard Meridian in India is ___________.
(c) The Earth is divided into_________ time zones.
(d) Due to its vastness, Russia has__________ time zones.
(e) 66 ½° Sis known as __________
Q-6 True or False:
(a) 82° 30' E is selected as the Standard Meridian in India.
(b) The Meridians of Longitudes have 370 lines.
(c) Each time zone cover 15° of longitudes.
(d) The North Temperate zone lies between the Arctic circle and the North frigid zone.
(e) In the Southern Hemishere, the parallel of 23½ 0 S is called the Tropic of Capricorn.
Q-7 One word answer:
(a) Angular distance of a place north or south of equator.
(b) Angular distance of a place east or west of prime meridian.
(c) The 0° longitude passing through Greenwich in England.
(d) Two fixed points on the Earth which are tips of the axis of the Earth.
Q-8

Match the columns correctly:
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 What is a globe?

(i)

Earth

(ii)

True model of the earth

(iii)

none of these
Q-2 Which of the following are shown on the globe in their true size?

(i)

Countries

(ii)

Continents

(iii)

both of these
Q-3 What is called a needle fixed through the globe in a tilted manner?

(i)

Orbit

(ii)

Axis

(iii)

Longitude
Q-4 What divides the earth into two equal parts?

(i)

Tropic of Cancer

(ii)

Tropic of Capricorn

(iii)

Equator
Chapter-17   Motions of the Earth
Q-1

Answer the following questions in short:
(1) What do you mean by the circle of illumination?
(2) When do we observe a leap year?
(3) How are days and nights formed?
(4) Give any three effects of rotation.
(5) Give the importance of inclination of the Earth's axis.
(6) Why is there no season on equator?
Q-2

Answer the following questions in detail:
(1) Give a description of summer solstice.
(2) Describe equinoxes.
(3) What factors are responsible for change in seasons?
(4) Why are days longer than nights during the summer season?
(5) What are the effects of revolution?
Q-3

Distinguish between:
(1) Rotation and revolution
(2) Summer solstice and winter solstice.
(3) Perihelion and aphelion
Q-4 Fill in the blanks:
(a) Winter solstice falls on _________
(b) Equinoxes mean ____________
(c) Days and nights are equal on _____________
(d) 21st March marks the beginning of ______ in northern hemisphere.
(e) Leap year has ______ days.
(f) Australia celebrates its Christmas during ____ season.
Q-5 True or False:
(a) The southern hemisphere is tilted toward the Sun during winter solstice.
(b) Seasons are caused due to rotation.
(c) A leap year observes 366 days.
(d) 21 March is called the Autumn equinox.
(e) When it is summer in Australia and South Africa, it is winter in India.
Q-6

Give answer in one word or in one sentence.
(a) Name the two motions of the Earth.
(b) What do you mean by revolution?
(c) At what angle is the axis inclined to the Earth's orbital plane?
(d) What do you mean by the word 'Solstice'?
(e) When does the Sun shines vertically on the equator?
(f) What is dawn?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The Earth has ______ types of motions.

(i)

two

(ii)

three

(iii)

four
Q-2 The Earth rotates on its ________.

(i)

equator

(ii)

axis

(iii)

longitude
Q-3 The Earth rotates on its axis once in _________ hours.

(i)

24

(ii)

48

(iii)

72
Q-4 ________ are the divisions of the year according to regular or constant changes in the weather.

(i)

Climates

(ii)

Seasons

(iii)

none of these
Chapter-18   Maps - Our Best Guides
Q-1

Answer the following questions in short:
(1) What is meant by a scale?
(2) Why are symbols used in maps?
(3) Where do we find maximum distortion on the maps?
(4) What does R.F. stand for?
(5) What is the chief feature of a globe?
(6) Name the four principal directions.
(7) Define a map.
Q-2

Answer the following questions in detail:
(1) Differentiate between a plan and a sketch.
(2) What are the different types of maps?
(3) What are the advantages of usings symbols on maps?
(4) Give a brief description of the components of a map.
(5) Differentiate between large scale maps and small scale maps.
(6) Define a globe? Also discuss its limitations. 
(7) Suggest any two methods of finding directions.
Q-3 Fill in the blanks:
(a) In a world map, the maximum distortion is at the ___________
(b) A _____ is a drawing of a small area on a large scale.
(c) A rough drawing, drawn without scale is called __________
(d) No particular units of measurement is used with __________
(e) We use _____ to make a map more informative.
Q-4 True or False:
(a) A sketch is always drawn according to scale.
(b) A small scale map shows a large area with less details.
(c) The main directions, i.e., North, South, East, West, are known as cardinal points.
(d) A compass helps us to measure distance between two places.
(e) North line is always given at the right side of maps.
Q-5 One word answer:
(a) True model of the Earth.
(b) A collection of maps bound in the form of a book.
(c) The four directions - North, South, East and West.
(d) The relation between the distance on the map and the corresponding actual distance on the ground.
Q-6

Draw conventional symbols for the following features:
Settlements, metalled and unmetalled roads, international and state boundary, river, canal bridge, mosque, temple.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 What is a map?

(i)

A globe

(ii)

A drawing of the earth’s surface on a flat paper according to scale

(iii)

A projection
Q-2 What is physical map?

(i)

Showing natural features of the earth

(ii)

Showing cities, towns and villages with boundaries

(iii)

Showing rainfall, distribution of forests etc.
Q-3 Which map gives more information?

(i)

Small scale map

(ii)

Large scale map

(iii)

Ordinary map
Q-4 A leap year has 366 days, which falls every ______ years.

(i)

two

(ii)

three

(iii)

four
Chapter-19   Major Domains of the Earth
Q-1

Answer the following questions in short:
(1) What do you mean by biosphere?
(2) Name the highest and the deepest places of the Earth.
(3) Write down an important feature of troposphere.
(4) Why is the Earth called the 'blue planet'?
(5) Name the two continents that lie entirely in the southern hemisphere.
(6) Name two important gases of atmosphere.
(7) Give any two methods of protecting environment.
(8) What do you mean by 'Hydrosphere'?
Q-2

Answer the following questions in detail:
(1) Differentiate between atmosphere and lithosphere.
(2) Name the oceans found over the Earth's surface. Also give important features of the Pacific Ocean.
(3) How are the human activities responsible for creating imbalance in environment?
(4) Give a brief description of the layers of atmosphere with a diagram.
(5) State the importance of biosphere.
Q-3 Fill in the blanks:
(1) ____ and ____ are the research stations of India in Antarctica.
(2) Atmosphere consists _____ per cent of nitrogen.
(3) ____ is a unique feature found along the north-eastern coast of Australia.
(4) The watery part of the Earth is known as _______
(5) The parts of the Indian ocean, the Atlantic ocean and the Pacific ocean which surrounds Antarctica are called ______. 
Q-4 True or False:
(a) The atmosphere contains 21 per cent nitrogen.
(b) The biosphere contains living organisms.
(c) Europe is the largest continent on Earth.
(d) Australia is called an island continent.
(e) The stratosphere is the uppermost layer of atmosphere.
(f) The Pacific ocean is the largest ocean in the world.
Q-5 One word answer:
(a) Huge landmasses, surrounded by oceans.
(b) The domain of the Earth containing waterbodies, such as oceans, seas, lakes, rivers, etc.
(c) The domain of life in the narrow zone where lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere come in contact with each other.
(d) Upper solid layer of the Earth containing plains, plateaus and mountains.
Q-6

Match the Columns correctly:
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Life exists in this zone:

(i)

Lithosphere

(ii)

Biosphere

(iii)

Hydrosphere
Q-2 It is the only continent through which the tropic of Cancer, the Equator, and the Tropic of Capricorn pass:

(i)

Asia

(ii)

Europe

(iii)

Africa
Q-3 It is the world’s longest mountain range.

(i)

The Andes

(ii)

The Mount Everest

(iii)

The Karakoram Range
Q-4 Which ocean is ‘S’ shaped?

(i)

The Pacific Ocean

(ii)

The Atlantic Ocean

(iii)

The Indian Ocean
Chapter-20   Our Country: India
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
(1) The longest east flowing river is the _____________
(2) Only the ___ and the ___ flows through western coastal plain and make estuaries.
(3) The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are separated by a wide channel called the ___ channel.
(4) The Lakshadweep Islands are of ____ origin.
(5) The Northern plains are made up of ____ soil.
Q-2 True or False:
(a) The Western coastal plains are broader than the eastern coastal plains.
(b) The Northern plains are rich in agriculture.
(c) Port Blair is the capital of Lakshadweep.
(d) The most extensive part of the Northern Plains is formed by the Ganga and its tributaries.
(e) Sunderban delta is the largest delta of the world.
Q-3 One word answer:
(a) A small stream or a river that merges into a main river.
(b) Another name of the Himalayas.
(c) A flat area of land that is higher than the land around it.
(d) A shallow area of salt water separated from the sea by a sandbar.
Q-4

Match the columns correctly:
Q-5

Answer the following questions in short:
(1) Answer the following questions in short:
(2) Give the location of the Malwa Plateau.
(3) Name the neighbouring countries of India.
(4) Why is a large concentration of population found in the Northern Plains?
(5) Name the major physical divisions of India.
(6) Name the two major rivers which fall into the Arabian Sea.
(7) Name the states having a common capital. Also name the capital.
(8) How many states and union territories are there in India?
Q-6

Answer the following questions in detail:
(1) Give any three features of northern plain.
(2) Give a description of the political and administrative divisions of India.
(3) Give a description about the Malwa Plateau and the Deccan Plateau.
(4) Differentiate between the Western coastal plain and the Eastern coastal plain.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 India is one of the most important countries in the continent of _______.

(i)

Asia

(ii)

Africa

(iii)

Australia
Q-2 India has an area of about _________ million sq. km.

(i)

3.18

(ii)

3.28

(iii)

3.38
Q-3 There are ________ countries that share land boundaries with India.

(i)

six

(ii)

seven

(iii)

eight
Q-4 India has _______ states.

(i)

28

(ii)

29

(iii)

30
Chapter-21   The Government
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
(a) The government is one of the most important ______________ of a country.
(b) The Constitution is in the form of a ____________.
(c) The____________ passes the laws.
(d) The laws are put into effect by the ____________.
Q-2 True or False:
(a) A government is not necessary for a country.
(b) The judiciary makes sure that laws are enforced properly.
(c) A citizen of 18 years has a right to vote.
(d) Democracy is the government of the people, by the people and for the people.
Q-3 One word answer:
(a) A system or policy by which a political unit is governed.
(b) A person or group having administrative or managerial authority in an organisation.
(c) The judicial branch of government i.e., the Supreme court, the High courts and all the lower courts.
(d) Supremacy of authority or rule as exercised by a sovereign or sovereign state.
Q-4

Match the following columns correctly:
Q-5

Answer the following questions:
(1) Why do we need a government?
(2) What can be the basis for classifying a government?
(3) What is meant by universal adult franchise?
(4) Mention any two functions of a government.
(5) What are the main characteristics of a democracy?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Forms of _________ refer to the institutions and the working of those institutions.

(i)

government

(ii)

schools

(iii)

colleges
Q-2 ________ is necessary to organise people.

(i)

Prejudice

(ii)

Government

(iii)

none of these
Q-3 The __________ passes laws.

(i)

legislature

(ii)

executive

(iii)

judiciary
Q-4 The laws are put into effect by the _______.

(i)

Judiciary

(ii)

Executive

(iii)

legislature
Chapter-22   Local Government (Section - I) The Panchayati Raj (The Three-Tier System)
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
(a) The Panchayati Raj is a system of local government in the __________ areas.
(b) Everyone above the age of 18 in a village is a member of ___________.
(c)_____________ of the total number of seats in a Gram Panchayat are reserved for women.
(d) The highest institution of Panchayati Raj is ___________.
(e) The Secretary is a ____ employee.
Q-2 True or False:
(a) The Panchayati Raj system is a two-tier system.
(b) The members of a Nyaya Panchayat are also the members of the Gram Sabha.
(c) The Zila Parishad is the second institution of the Panchayati Raj.
(d) The Block Samiti is the second institution of the Panchayati Raj.
(e) The Zila Parishad makes plans for the development of a block.
Q-3 One word answer:
(a) An election held before the completion of the stipulated term of the government.
(b) Equal treatment of all people in the eyes of law.
(c) A system of discrimination on the basis of skin colour.
(d) Make less severe or harsh.
Q-4

Match the following columns correctly:
Q-5

Answer the questions given below:
(1) Describe the structure of the Panchayati Raj system. 
(2) How is a Block Samiti formed?
(3) How is the Zila Parishad formed?
(4) What are the functions of the Zila Parishad?
(5) Mention the significance of the Panchayati Raj.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 There is _______ Central Government for the whole country.

(i)

one

(ii)

no

(iii)

both of these
Q-2 There are _______ Union Territories in India.

(i)

seven

(ii)

eight

(iii)

nine
Q-3 The members of a Gram Panchayat are elected for a term of __________ years.

(i)

three

(ii)

four

(iii)

five
Q-4 The Panchayati Raj is a _______ system.

(i)

two-tier

(ii)

three-tier

(iii)

four-tier
Chapter-23   Local Government (Section - II)
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
(a) The Chairman is the head of a ______________.
(b) The elected head of the municipal corporation is the ______________.
(c) A municipal corporation is elected for a term of _________ years.
(d) The local self-government in cities, such as Delhi, Mumbai and Chennai are known as ______________.
(e) A person who has attained the age of ______can vote in the elections of local self- government.
Q-2 True or False:
(a) A Nagar Panchayat is the largest institution of rural government.
(b) The Mayor is the head of the municipality.
(c) The head of municipality is elected by the people who have attained the age of 15 years.
(d) The Chairman is the head of a municipality.
(e) Some seats are reserved in a corporation or municipality for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
Q-3 One word answer:
(a) The local body that looks after the administration of a village or a group of villages.
(b) The lowest unit of the Panchayat Raj at the village level. All the adult members of a village are its members.
(c) The system of local government at village level, block level and district level.
(d) Local government at district level.
Q-4

Match the following columns correctly:
Q-5

Answer the following questions:
(1) What is a 'Nagar Panchayat'? Describe its functions.
(2) How is a Municipality formed?
(3) Mention the functions of a Municipality and a Municipal Corporation.
(4) What are the sources of income of a local self-government?
(5) Describe the relationship of local bodies and state government.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 A _____ is a local self-governing body in smaller towns and cities.

(i)

government

(ii)

municipality

(iii)

none of these
Q-2 The number of elected members is usually between fifty and _________.

(i)

ten

(ii)

hundred

(iii)

fifteen
Q-3 The local bodies work under the overall control of the __________ government.

(i)

central

(ii)

state

(iii)

union
Q-4 This is a government on district level.

(i)

Zilla Parishad

(ii)

municipality

(iii)

none of these
Chapter-24   Rural Administration or District Administration
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
(a) The official incharge of the district administration is the _____________.
(b) A district is divided into _____________.
(c) The ____________ is incharge of health services in the district.
(d) The ___________ is incharge of schools in the district.
(e) An SP or an SSP is the highest official of the department of ________in a district.
Q-2 True or False:
(a) There are 640 districts in our country.
(b) The District Collector is the chief of the tehsil.
(c) The Superintendent of Police is the head of the police in the district.
(d) The CMO is the chief of health services.
(e) The court of the Sessions Judge is the highest court for civil cases in the district.
Q-3 One word answer:
(a) A civil officer with power to administer and enforce law in a district.
(b) A division of an area, as for administrative purposes.
(c) The income of a government from all sources appropriated for the payment of the public expenses.
(d) Subordinate to the court of the District Judge.
Q-4

Match the following columns correctly:
Q-5

Answer the following questions:
(1) Why has India been divided into districts?
(2) What are the functions of a District Collector/District Magistrate? Describe.
(3) Name three officers with their departments and duties.
(4) Describe the supervision process of Panchayati Raj by the District Collector.
(5) Who can award a death sentence at the district level?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 India is the _________ largest country in the world.

(i)

fifth

(ii)

sixth

(iii)

seventh
Q-2 A district is a unit of __________.

(i)

government

(ii)

none of these

(iii)

administration

Q-3 ________ is a civil officer with power to administer and enforce law in a district.

(i)

District Megistrate

(ii)

Judge

(iii)

none of these
Q-4 ________ is the income of a government from all sources appropriated for the payment of the public expenses.

(i)

Expense

(ii)

Revenue

(iii)

both of these
Chapter-25   Making a Living - Rural Livelihoods and Urban Livelihoods
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
(a) Agriculture is the chief occupation of the ____________.
(b) A large-scale farmer owns more than_____________ land.
(c) ____________supplies fruits and vegetables in the street to street at the doorstep.
(d)___________ makes wooden toys for children.
Q-2 True or False:
(a) Cooperation is not necessary for progress.
(b) Small-sized farmers own more than 5 hectares of land.
(c) A carpenter makes wooden toys for children.
(d) A shopkeeper sells and purchases goods.
(e) A tailor weaves clothes for the villagers.
Q-3 One word answer:
(a) One that forges and shapes iron with an anvil and hammer.
(b) Characteristic of the city or city life.
(c) Public institutions that dispense medicines or medical aid.
(d) One who sells or vends: a street vendor; a vendor of software products on the web.
Q-4

Match the following columns correctly:
Q-5

Answer the following questions:
(1) Name the different types of livelihoods in a village. 
(2) Write a note on different types of farmers.
(3) What is meant by a secondary activity or occupation? Name any three.
(4) Describe the various types of livelihoods in cities.
(5) Explain the causes of migration.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 ___________ helps individuals to make progress.

(i)

Animal

(ii)

Substitution

(iii)

Co-operation
Q-2 The farmers who own more than _______ hectares or land are called large-scale farmers.

(i)

four

(ii)

five

(iii)

six
Q-3 _______ makes tools and implements of iron for the farming community.

(i)

Shopkeeper

(ii)

Carpenter

(iii)

Blacksmith
Q-4 _________ sews clothes.

(i)

Carpenter

(ii)

Tailor

(iii)

none of these