Question bank

Chapter-1   World During Modern Age
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
  • (1)
    Historians have tried to divide history into ancient, _____ and modern period.

  • (2)
    The French Revolution took place in ______

  • (3)
    ____________ century is regarded as the darkest period in the history of India.

  • (4)
    The invention of steam engine symbolizes the _______

  • (5)
    Because of the invention of the ____________, a lot of books began to be available.

Q-2 State it the sentences are True/False:
  • (1)
    For most of the 18th century, India continued 10 suffer and crumble under the British rule.

  • (2)
    Industrial Revolution started with the mechanisation of the textile industries.

  • (3)
    Harsh working conditions were not common before the Industrial Revolution.

  • (4)
    Rousseau was a great philosopher of France.

  • (5)
    Lenin led the French Revolution.

Q-3 Answer the following questions in short:
  • (1)
    How was the period of the 18th century in India?

  • (2)
    How did the Industrial Revolution start?

  • (3)
    What is nationalism?

  • (4)
    Who was Lenin?

  • (5)
    What is imperilism?

Q-4 Answer the following questions in long:
  • (1)
    Why did the French Revolution take place?

  • (2)
    What were the features of the Industrial Revolution ? Also state its impact on India.

  • (3)
    What do you understand by the term 'Modern Period'? What is the duration of this period in the history of India ?

  • (4)
    Throw light upon the various sources of modern Indian history.

  • (5)
    How have historical buildings and paintings proved useful as a source of history [.i.e. the history of Modern India]?

Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 

During ___________ England was undergoing the Industrial Revolution.

  • (i)

    The 18th century
  • (ii)

    ) The 17th century
  • (iii)

    None of these
  • (iv)

    The 16th century
Q-2 Ordinary working people found increased opportunities for-
  • (i)

    employment
  • (ii)

    migration
  • (iii)

    revolution
  • (iv)

    all of these
Q-3 The factory system was largely responsible for the rise of the modern-
  • (i)

    cities
  • (ii)

    mall
  • (iii)

    village
  • (iv)

    all of these
Q-4 

History has been divided into ______ parts.

  • (i)

    one
  • (ii)

    two
  • (iii)

    three
Q-5 During which period did Babur, Humayun and Akbar rule over India?
  • (i)

    medieval
  • (ii)

    modern
  • (iii)

    ancient
Q-6 The first socialist republic was let up in
  • (i)

    the USSR
  • (ii)

    the U.K
  • (iii)

    the USA
Q-7 The U.N. was set up after
  • (i)

    The second world war
  • (ii)

    The third world war
  • (iii)

    The first world war
Chapter-2   European Powers in India
Q-1 Fill in the blanks
  • (1)
    ___________ discovered the sea route to India.

  • (2)
    The Europeans initially came to India for _______

  • (3)
    The conflict between the British and the French led to the___________ wars

  • (4)
    Madras (Chennai), Calcutta (Kolkata) and Bombay (Mumbai) were called _____ towns.

  • (5)
    The__________ war of succession triggered off the Carnatic war in India.

  • (6)
    The British factory at__________ was captured by Siraj-ud-Daulah.

  • (7)
    __________was an important banker of Bengal.

  • (8)
    The territories of_______,__________ and ____ were given to the British by Siraj-ud Daulah.

  • (9)
    Elizabeth I was the queen of ________

Q-2 Match the following:
Q-3 Say if the following sentences are True/False:
  • 1. In 1660, London merchants formed the East India Company.
  • 2. Vasco da Gama reached India in 1492.
  • 3. The modern period in India began at the same time as in Europe.
  • 4. The three Carnatic wars proved decisive for the victory of the English over their French rivals.
Q-4 Answer the following questions in short:
  • 1. Who was Adam Smith ?

  • 2. What was the basis of mercantilism?
  • 3. Who were the first to trade with India?
  • 4. Where were the Dutch present in India?
  • 5. Who permitted various European trading stations in his territory?
Q-5 Answer the following questions in long:
  • 1. Why was Siraj-ud-Daulah defeated in the Battle of Plassey?
  • 2. What was the System of Dual Government?
  • 3. Explain the battle of Buxar
  • 4. Explain the victory that made Clive the virtual master of Bengal.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 

In the battle of Plassey fought in 1757, Nawab Siraj-ud-Daulah of Bengal was defeated by the British forces. Who led the British forces in this battle?

  • (i)

    Robert Clive
  • (ii)

    Lord Dalhousie
  • (iii)

    Lord Wellesley
  • (iv)

    Cornwallis
Q-2 Vasco da Gama reached Calicut on May 20,
  • (i)

    1498
  • (ii)

    1496
  • (iii)

    1495
  • (iv)

    1497
Q-3 

The mercantile theory held that colonies exist for the _________of the mother country and are useless unless they help to achieve profit.

  • (i)

    Economic benefit
  • (ii)

    Social benefit
  • (iii)

    All of these
  • (iv)

    Benefit
Chapter-3   Expansion of European Powers in India
Q-1 State if the following sentences are True/False:
  • 1. The Doctrine of Lapse was formulated in 1834.
  • 2. Warren Hastings became the Governor-General of India in 1772
  • 3. Lord Wellesley is associated with the policy of Subsidiary Alliance.
  • 4. In 1799, Tipu Sultan defeated the British.
  • 5. Awadh was annexed under the Doctrine of Lapse.
Q-2 Answer the following questions in short:
  • 1. What is the Doctrine of Lapse?

  • 2. What is the Subsidiary Alliance?

  • 3. What led to the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War? State its consequences.
  • 4. When was the third Anglo-Maratha war, which proved a total disaster for the Marathas, fought?
  • 5. Who was the British Governor-General of India when Punjab was annexed to the British Empire ?
Q-3 Answer the following questions in detail:
  • 1. Explain the expansion of British powers in India.
  • 2. What were the main features of the Subsidiary Alliance system introduced by Wellesley?

  • 3. Explain the Anglo-Mararatha wars.
  • 4. Explain the relations of the English with Mysore.
  • 5. What were causes of the defeat of the Indian states?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The Anglo-Maratha wars were the three wars fought in India between the Maratha Empire and the
  • (i)

    East India Company
  • (ii)

    Dutch East India Company
  • (iii)

    Company Chartered Company
  • (iv)

    French East India Company
Q-2 

The Treaty of Seringapatam was signed after the defeat of Tipu Sultan in the Third Anglo Mysore war. Between whom were this treaty signed?

  • (i)

    Tipu Sultan and Cornwallis
  • (ii)

    Tipu Sultan and Lord Minto
  • (iii)

    Tipu Sultan and Lord Canning
  • (iv)

    Tipu Sultan and lord Wellesley

Q-3 Which British Governor-General is associated with 'subsidiary alliance'?
  • (i)

    Lord Wellesley
  • (ii)

    Lord Clive
  • (iii)

    Lord Cornwallis
  • (iv)

    Warren Hastings
Q-4 

During the Afghan war which of the following was made the base of operations?

  • (i)

    Amritsar
  • (ii)

    Sindh
  • (iii)

    Delhi
  • (iv)

    Kabul
Q-5 Which were the three states annexed to the British Empire under the Doctrine of Lapse?
  • (i)

    The states of Jhansi, Nagpur and Satara
  • (ii)

    none of these
  • (iii)

    The states of Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata

  • (iv)

    The states of Mumbai, Thane and Pune

Chapter-4   Colonial Army and Civil Administration
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
  • 1. The Pitt's Act, 1784, was introduced by the British Prime Minister ...................... .

  • 2. The Charter Act of ...................... centralised the British administration in India.
  • 3. The Charter Act of ...................... marked the beginning of a Parliamentary system in India.
  • 4. The system of open competition to the Indian Civil Service was introduced by the Act of .........................

  • 5. Lord ...................... organised the police into a regular force.
Q-2 Write True or False:
  • 1. The Charter Act of 1813 abolished the Company's monopoly of trade altogether.
  • 2. The highest position an Indian could hold in the army was that of a Subedar.
  • 3. The Supreme Court was established in Delhi.
  • 4. The first Governor General of India was Lord Cornwallis.
  • 5. The Civil Service was founded by Lord Dalhousie.
Q-3 Match the columns
Q-4 Answer the following questions in short:
  • 1. Who was the first Governor General of India?
  • 2. When and where was the Supreme Court of India established? Who was the first Chief Justice?
  • 3. What were the major features of the Regulating Act, 1773?
  • 4. Who organised the British Civil Services in India?
Q-5 Descriptive Questions:
  • 1. What is known as the Regulating Act of 1773? State its two features.

  • 2. What were the main provisions of the Pitt's India Act of 1784?

  • 3. What did the Charter Acts of 1813 and 1833 provide?
  • 4. State the impact of legal measures or Acts enacted upto 1856.
  • 5. What changes did Lord Cornwallis introduce in the Indian police system?
Q-6 Answer the following questions briefly:
  • 1. Critically evaluate the main provisions of the Regulating Act of 1773.

  • 2. How were the drawbacks of the Regulating Act removed?
  • 3. What was the need for the civil services and what steps did Lord Cornwallis take to reorganize the civil services?

  • 4. List the important features of the Indian Judicial system under the East India Company. What was its major drawback?

  • 5. Why were the local Indians dissatisfied with the local police?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 A Special Court to try The Company's officials was set up by
  • (i)

    Lord Cornwallis

  • (ii)

    Regulating Act

  • (iii)

     Pitt's India Act

Q-2 An efficient Indian Civi l Service was organised by
  • (i)

     Lord Cornwal lis

  • (ii)

     Warren Hastings

  • (iii)

    Robert Clive

Q-3 A Special Police department was first organised by
  • (i)

    Cornwallis

  • (ii)

    Warren Hastings

  • (iii)

    Clive

Q-4 The Regulation Act fixed the number of the members to
  • (i)

    Three

  • (ii)

    Four

  • (iii)

     Five

Chapter-5   Rural Life and Society
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
  • 1. ...................... introduced the ljaradari System in Bengal.

  • 2. The Ryotwari System was introduced in Karnataka and Mysuru at the instance of ....................
  • 3. ....................... made the settlement permanent by a regulation in 1773.

  • 4. Dinbhandu Mitra described the plight of the indigo cultivators in him play ....................... .
  • 5. The Charter Act of ....................... granted the ownership right to indigo planters in India.
Q-2 True/False:
  • 1. Warren Hastings introduced the ljardati system.
  • 2. Lord Dalhousie introduced the Permanent Settlement.
  • 3. Under the Mahalwari system, the government could not increase land revenue periodically.
  • 4. Indigo, tea, coffee are called food crops.
  • 5. The indigo cultivators were forced to grow this crop
Q-3 Match the names in column 'A' with the statements in column '8'.
Q-4 Answer the following questions in detail:
  • 1. What was the economic structure of Indian villages before the advent of the British?
  • 2. Who introduced the Permanent Settlement? Explain.

  • 3. Discuss the effects of economic policies introduced by the British.
  • 4. What led to the deterioration of agriculture in India?
  • 5. What do you know about the commercialization of agriculture under the British?

  • 6. Discuss the impact of the growth of commercial crops in India.
Q-5

Answer the following questions in short:

  • 1. What were the three systems of land revenue adopted by the British?
  • 2. What was Ryotwari System?
  • 3. Explain the Mahalwari System.
  • 4. Explain the ljaradari System.
  • 5. Who were the indigo planters?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 One can imagine India's prosperity quite easily with the fact that it was known as ................ bird in the world.
  • (i)

    Golden

  • (ii)

    Silver

  • (iii)

    Copper

  • (iv)

    All of these

Q-2 The East India Company wanted raw material for its factories in England and required a lot of money for its expanding
  • (i)

    Army

  • (ii)

    Officials

  • (iii)

    All of these

  • (iv)

    Colonies

Q-3 The Permanent Settlement in Bengal was an agreement between the East India Company and-
  • (i)

    Bengali landlords

  • (ii)

    Dutch

  • (iii)

    Bihari landlords

  • (iv)

    All of these

Q-4 The play 'Neel Darpan' was published in
  • (i)

    1860

  • (ii)

    1900

  • (iii)

    1757

  • (iv)

    None

Q-5 The Ryotwari system is associated with:
  • (i)

    Hastings

  • (ii)

    Ashley Eden

  • (iii)

    Cornwallis

  • (iv)

    Thomas Munro

Q-6 Ryotwari system was extended to
  • (i)

    Awadh area

  • (ii)

    Mumbai area

  • (iii)

    Kolkata area

  • (iv)

    Karnataka and Mysuru

Q-7 Indigo-cultivators revolted against the cruel policy of British-
  • (i)

    Indigo planters

  • (ii)

    Indigo farmers

  • (iii)

    Indigo agents

  • (iv)

    All of these

Q-8 

The Moplah peasants of Malabar (North Kerala) organized ........... revolts from 1836 to 1854.

  • (i)

    22

  • (ii)

    23

  • (iii)

    24

  • (iv)

    25

Chapter-6   Colonialism and Tribal Societies
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
  • 1. The largest concentration of the tribes is in .................... .
  • 2. The largest Adivasi population belongs to .................... .
  • 3. A major role is played by .................... with tribal society.
  • 4. The .................... occupied the hil ly region between the Jaintia and the Garo hills.
  • 5. The First Burmese War was fought between ................... .
Q-2 Match the following:
Q-3 State if the sentences are True/False:
  • 1. The United Nations and multilateral agencies generally consider the STs as 'indigenous peoples'.
  • 2. Most of the tribals live in hilly and forest areas
  • 3. Polygamy was prevalent among the tribal societies.
  • 4. Birsa Munda organised the revolts in the Chhotanagpur Region.

Q-4 Answer the following questions in short:
  • 1. What do you understand by the term 'tribe'?
  • 2. Describe the habitation and economy of a tribe.
  • 3. Name the principal tribes inhabiting the north-eastern region and the Chotanagpur region.
  • 4. Who was Birsa Munda?
  • 5. Where do the Santhals live ? What is their chief occupation?
  • 6. Who led the first ever revolt against the landlords and the British?
Q-5 Answer the following questions in long:
  • 1. What changes occurred in the tribal economies and societies in the nineteenth century?
  • 2. Explain the revolts in the north-eastern region.
  • 3. Explain the Santhal rebel lion.
  • 4. Describe the role of Birsa Munda in organising his people against the Zamindars and the British rule.
  • 5. Why did the tribals repeatedly rebel against the British in the north-eastern, eastern and central Indian belt?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The first tribal revolt in the Chotanagpur region was organised by
  • (i)

    Kols

  • (ii)

    Mundas

  • (iii)

    Santhals

  • (iv)

    Khasis

Q-2 

Tirot Singh was the leader of the

  • (i)

    Mundas

  • (ii)

    Khasis

  • (iii)

    Santhals

  • (iv)

    Kukis

Q-3 Siddhu and Kanhu were the leaders of the
  • (i)

    Mundas

  • (ii)

    Santhals

  • (iii)

    Khasis

  • (iv)

    Khonds

Q-4 land dispossession and subjugation by the British and zamindar interests resulted in a number of adivasi-
  • (i)

    Movements

  • (ii)

    Rebellions

  • (iii)

    All of these

  • (iv)

    Revolts

Q-5 The Santhal insurrection broke out in-
  • (i)

    1855

  • (ii)

    1856

  • (iii)

    1857

  • (iv)

    1858

Chapter-7   The Indian Mutiny
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
  • 1. Lord Dalhousie annexed the states of ____________, ______________and _______ on the basis of Doctrine of Lapse.
  • 2. __________, the adopted son of Peshwa Baji Rao II, became one of the leaders of the Revolt.

  • 3. Bahadur Shah II who lived in Delhi was declared ____________

  • 4. General Bakht Khan was leader of the __________

  • 5. The Revolt of 1857 started as a______ of the sepoys.
  • 6. The important centres of the Revolt were _______, _______, ______, ______

Q-2 Match the following:
Q-3 Say if the sentences are True/False:
  • 1. The Revolt of 1857 broke out in a sudden and spontaneous manner.
  • 2. The British forced Indians to sell cheap and buy dear.
  • 3. Artisans were patronized the new British rulers.
  • 4. The Indian rulers were quite satisfied with Lord Dalhousie's Expansionist policies.
  • 5. The Revolt of 1857 started as a mutiny of sepoys in the Company's army
  • 6. The Revolt in Lucknow was led by Nana Saheb.
Q-4 Answer the following questions in short:
  • 1. What is known as the greased cartridges incident?
  • 2. How did the Revolt of 1857 spread to Delhi?
  • 3. Who was Nana Sahib ? What did he do during the course of the Revolt of 1857?
  • 4. Why is Rani Laxmibai of Jhansi most remembered for?
  • 5. Which English officer was responsible for the outbreak of spark of revolt from Meerut?
  • 6. How did the British humiliate the Mughals?
  • 7. What was Mangal Pandey hanged for?
Q-5 Answer the following questions in long:
  • 1. what were the chief causes of the Revolt of 1857?
  • 2. Describe three causes of the failure of the Revolt of 1857.

  • 3. What policy was adopted by the British after suppression of the Revolt?
  • 4. Mention only three main results of the Revolt.
  • 5. Give instances of resistance against the British rule in different parts of the country
Q-6

Identify the following people or places or events:

  • 1. The sepoys of Awadh were infuriated by this event and joined the uprising.

  • 2. This is the place where the first act of rebellion took place.

  • 3. This is what the sepoys crossed to enter Delhi from Meerut.

  • 4. He helped both Nana Sahib and Lakshmibai in their battles.

  • 5. This event in Lucknow was one of the most memorable.

  • 6. He was the actual leader of the rebels in Delhi.

  • 7. These were the people who made the Revolt a popular one.

  • 8. The Mughal dynasty ended with this event.

  • 9. He was an 80-year-old leader in Bihar.

  • 10. This was the place where Bahadur Shah's sons were executed.

Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The British rule brought drastic changes to the lives of ............... Indians.
  • (i)

    poor

  • (ii)

    rich

  • (iii)

    none of these

  • (iv)

    both of these

Q-2 Western education exposed Indians to the new thoughts of-
  • (i)

    liberty

  • (ii)

    equality

  • (iii)

    none of these

  • (iv)

    both of these

Q-3 After the Meerut mutiny the rebels moved to
  • (i)

    Kanpur

  • (ii)

    Lucknow

  • (iii)

    Delhi

  • (iv)

    None of these

Q-4 Who was declrared as the Emperor of India during the Revolt of 1857?
  • (i)

    Bahadur Shah II

  • (ii)

    Alam Shah I

  • (iii)

    Alam Shah II

  • (iv)

    Bahadur Shah I

Q-5 Begum Hazrat Mahal led the revolt at-
  • (i)

    Lucknow

  • (ii)

    Kanpur

  • (iii)

    Arrah

  • (iv)

    Dinapur

Chapter-8   Education and the British Rule
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
  • 1. Reforms were first started in Bengal because ___________

  • 2. The Muslims remained backward because ____________

  • 3. The Theosophical Society was different from other reform movements because ________

  • 4. Regional languages developed at this time because ________

  • 5. Progress of science was hampered because of ________

  • 6. Swami Dayanand Saraswati founded the_________ in _________

  • 7. Swami Vivekananda was a disciple of __________

  • 8. Temples were the focus of reforms in ________India.

  • 9. __________won the Nobel Prize for Literature in 1913.

Q-2 Match the following:
Q-3 Write True or False for each statement:
  • 1. The practice of 'sati' was abolished in 1829, largely due to the efforts of Raja Ram Mohan Roy.
  • 2. The Hindu Balika Vidyalaya was opened by lshwar Chandra Vidyasagar.
  • 3. The reform movements first started in Bengal and then spread to other parts of India
  • 4. Ramabai Ranade was a reformer of northern India.
Q-4 Answer the following questions in short:
  • 1. Name four evils that existed in the Indian society.
  • 2. Name two Parsi reformers and what was their aim.
  • 3. What steps were taken to encourage the progress of science?
Q-5 Answer the following questions in long
  • 1. What were Raja Ram Mohan Roy's contributions to education?
  • 2. List the different steps taken by the British government for the spread of education.
  • 3. There were some changes in the sphere of literature at this time. What were they?
  • 4. What role did the press play? Name some important newspapers of those days
  • 5. What was the contribution of Singh Sabha Movement to the education?
  • 6. What did lshwar Chandra Vidyasagar do to enhance the education in Indian society?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Who was the founder of Brahmo Samaj?
  • (i)

    Keshav Chandra Sen

  • (ii)

    Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

  • (iii)

    Dwarka Nath Tagore

  • (iv)

    Raja Ram Mohan Roy

Q-2 The Aligarh Muslim University was founded by
  • (i)

    Gopal Krishna Gokhale

  • (ii)

    Raja Ram Mohan Roy

  • (iii)

    Sir Syed Ahmed Khan

  • (iv)

    Swami Dayanand

Q-3 Who was the most important socio-religious reformer of the Muslims in the 19th century?
  • (i)

    Sir Syed Ahmad Khan

  • (ii)

    Muhammad Iqbal

  • (iii)

    Maqsud Ali

  • (iv)

    Mohd Ali Jinnah

Chapter-9   Women and Reform Movements in India
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
  • 1. The Brahmo Sabha was founded in .................... .
  • 2. The first women's uplift movement in Maharashtra was led by .................... .

  • 3. ................... abolished the sati practice by law.

  • 4. The Deccan Society was founded in .................... .
  • 5. The Widow Remarriage Act was passed in .................... .

Q-2 Establish a link between Column A and Column B:
Q-3 State if the sentences are True/False:
  • 1. The sati practice was more prevalent in Bengal.
  • 2. Savitribai was the first woman teacher in Maharashtra.
  • 3. Sati was banned by Raja Ram Mohan Roy.
  • 4. Mahadev Govind Ranade was associated with the Prarthana Samaj.
  • 5. Bethune School was started by lshwar Chandra Vidhyasagar.
  • 6. Most notable educator and legislator, Gopal Krishna Gokhale was inspired by Ranade.
Q-4 Answer the following questions in short:
  • 1. What do you understand by the reform?
  • 2. Who was Raja Ram Mohan Roy? What is his contribution for the cause of the women?
  • 3. Name any four major social ills women suffered during the nineteenth century
  • 4. Who was lshwar Chandra Vildyasagar? What did he do for women's uplift?
  • 5. Who was Swami Dayanand? How did he contribute for women's uplift?
  • 6. Who was the most prominent Muslim reformer? What is his main contribution?

  • 7. Who was Mahadev Govind Ranade?
Q-5 Answer the following questions in long:
  • 1. Explain the reasons, why were the reformers focused on the women's conditions?
  • 2. What was the impact of various reforms in the sphere of legislation?

  • 3. Describe the contribution of Bengal to the upliftment of women.
  • 4. Describe the contribution of Maharashtra in the women's uplift.
  • 5. Evaluate the status of women during the British rule.
  • 6. Why was the need for social reforms for women felt?
  • 7. Evaluate the coming of the British in India as a boost to the works of the Indian reformers.
  • 8. What was the impact of literature on social reforms ?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 'Lokhitavadi' title was given to :
  • (i)

    Keshab Chandra Sen

  • (ii)

    Gopal Hari Deshmukh

  • (iii)

    Govind Ranade

Q-2 The custom of sari was banned by:
  • (i)

    Raja Ram Mohan Roy

  • (ii)

    Lord William Bentinck

  • (iii)

    Lord Macaulay

Q-3 

The Widow Remarriage Act was brought about by the untiring efforts of:

  • (i)

    Raja Ram Mohan Roy

  • (ii)

    lshwar Chandra Vidhyasagar

  • (iii)

    Keshab Chandra Sen

Q-4 lshwar Chandra Vidyasagar championed female education and led the campaign for-
  • (i)

    Remarriage

  • (ii)

    Child education

  • (iii)

    None of these

  • (iv)

    Widow remarriage

Q-5 Reform movements showed the guiding light for ................. to be enacted.
  • (i)

    Laws

  • (ii)

    Rules

  • (iii)

    Traditions

  • (iv)

    All of these

Chapter-10   Colonialism and Urban Change
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
  • 1. Lord .................... set up the Public Works Department
  • 2. . ................... was the first port town occupied by the Portuguese
  • 3. The British established themselves at .................... in 1639.
  • 4. In __________Madras uses raised to the rank of Presidency
  • S. Delhi was made the capital of India in .................... .
Q-2 Match the columns:
Q-3 Write True or False:
  • 1. The British introduced the railways in India in 1858.

  • 2. The British first established themselves in Bombay
  • 3. Pondicherry was established by the French.

  • 4. The British shifted the capital from Calcutta to Delhi in 1911 .
  • 5. The Civil Lines contained offices and residences of British officials.
Q-4 Answer the following questions in short:
  • 1. Who was the architect of New Delhi?
  • 2. Name some of the major British monuments in Delhi.
  • 3. Why were the Civil lines and Cantonments built?
  • 4. Who set up a separate Public Works Department during the British rule?

  • 5. Name the city with the highest population of India in 1800s?

  • 6. How did the introduction of railways help urbanization?

  • 7. Why did Calcutta gain importance under the British?

  • 8. How did acquisition of Bombay benefit the British in India?
  • 9. Name some places in Madras which deserve special mention.

Q-5 Answer the following questions in long:
  • 1. What led to the decline of cities in India during the 19th century?
  • 2. Explain the role of railways in the growth of metropolitan towns and decline of Pre-British towns in India.
  • 3. Why were the municipalities established in big cities during the British rule?
  • 4. Write a note on the British influence on urbanization in India.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Railways were introduced in India in
  • (i)

    1857

  • (ii)

    1858

  • (iii)

    1853

  • (iv)

    1852

Q-2 Calcuta was the capital of India till
  • (i)

    1800

  • (ii)

    1872

  • (iii)

    1911

  • (iv)

    1902

Q-3 Which city was built by a Mughal Emperor?
  • (i)

    Firozabad

  • (ii)

    Siri

  • (iii)

    Shahjahanabad

  • (iv)

    lndraprastha

Q-4 Waltair emerged as a
  • (i)

    Administrative town

  • (ii)

    Commercial town

  • (iii)

    Port town

  • (iv)

    Railway town

Chapter-11   Reforming the Caste System
Q-1

Match the Columns:

Q-2 Fill in the blanks:
  • 1. The caste system was the main cause of .................... .

  • 2. The .................... was against the feeling of world brotherhood.
  • 3. ................... founded the Satya Shodhak Samaj.

  • 4. ................... did his work in Kerala.

  • 5. Mahatma Gandhi founded the .................... Sangh.
Q-3 Write True or False against each statement:
  • 1. The caste system was a check on personal advancement.
  • 2. Jyotiba Phule was born in 1805 in Maharashtra.
  • 3. Veeresalingam worked for the upliftment of the Ezhavas.
  • 4. Dr Bhim Rao Ambedker founded the Theosophical Society.
  • 5. Sri Narayan Guru founded the Rajamundri Association.
  • 6. Ranked below the two top categories were the Vaishyas.
  • 7. Jyotirao, along with his followers, formed the Shodhak Samaj.

  • 8. Dr B.R. Ambedkar's helped to establish the 'Bahishkrit Hitkarini Sabha'.
Q-4 Answer the following questions in brief:
  • 1 . What do you understand by caste system?
  • 2. Who was Jyotiba Phule ? What was his contribution in the field of caste reforms?
  • 3. Describe the work of Veeresalingam for caste reforms.
  • 4. Who was Dr Bhim Rao Ambedkar?
  • 5. Who was Sri Narayan Guru ? Why is he remembered?
  • 6. Where did Narayana Guru belong to?
  • 7. What was the percentage of the population of "untouchables" in India in 1930s?
Q-5 Answer the following questions in long:
  • 1. How did untouchability prove harmful for the Hindu society?
  • 2. Why did most of the reformers focus on the caste system?
  • 3. What did Gandhi ji do for the cause of the depressed classes?

  • 4. Evaluate the work of Dr B.R. Ambedkar for the uplift of the depressed classes.

  • 5. Define caste system along with its negative aspects.

  • 6. Who gave the term Harijan? Explain his reason of coining this term.
Q-6 Write short notes on the following:
  • 1. Satyasodhak Movement
  • 2. Self-Respect Movement
  • 3. Ezhava Movement
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 ___________ fought to end caste discrimination in Maharashtra.
  • (i)

    Kabir

  • (ii)

    Jyotirao Govindrao Phule

  • (iii)

    Mughal

  • (iv)

    Shri Nanak Guru

Q-2 All India Harijan Sevak Sangh was founded by
  • (i)

    Mahatma Gandhi

  • (ii)

    Dr B.R. Ambedkar

  • (iii)

    None of these

  • (iv)

    Shri Nanak Guru

Q-3 

..................... believe that there is no place for the caste system in Hinduism.

  • (i)

    Swami Vivekananda

  • (ii)

    Swami Ramananda

  • (iii)

    Jyotiba Phule

  • (iv)

    None of these

Q-4 

A threefold division of society into priests, warriors and commoners was a part of the .............. heritage.

  • (i)

    British

  • (ii)

    Mughal

  • (iii)

    Turk

  • (iv)

    Aryan

Chapter-12   Changes in the Arts: Literature, Painting and Architecture
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
  • 1. Geetanjali was written by ________

  • 2. New literary forms like centuries__________. and __________became popular in the 19th and 20th.

  • 3. Subramania Bharti was a _______ writer.
  • 4. Prince of Wales Museum is situated in ___________

  • 5. The Victoria Terminus is also known as _________

Q-2 True or False:
  • 1. Munshi Premchand was the author of Godan.
  • 2. Sharat Chandra Chatterjee was a Bengali writer

  • 3. Qazi Nazrul Islam was a Bengali poet.
  • 4. Gateway of India is situated in Delhi
  • 5. Amrita Shergil was a genius in oil painting and academic realism.
Q-3 Answer the following questions in short:
  • 1. Mention the famous civic monuments of the British period in Mumbai.

  • 2. Mention the famous buildings of the British period in Chennai.
  • 3. What do you know about Udai Shankar?
  • 4. What do you know about Rabindranath Tagore?
  • 5. What are performing arts?
  • 6. Mention some fiction writers and their famous works.
Q-4

Answer the following questions in detail:

  • 1. Write an account of the development of painting in India during the British rule
  • 2. Describe the progress of performing arts in Indian in the twentieth century.
  • 3. Describe the various styles of architecture of the British monuments in India.
  • 4. Write a note on the progress made in the field of fiction during the twentieth century.
  • 5. Briefly describe the changes brought in modern Indian literature in the nineteenth and early twentieth centuries.
Q-5

Match the Columns:

Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Rabindranath Tagore won Nobel Prize for his
  • (i)

    Geetanjali

  • (ii)

    Gora

  • (iii)

    Galpa Guchcha

  • (iv)

    Chare Baire

Q-2 'Rangbhoomi' is a novel written by
  • (i)

    Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

  • (ii)

    Munshi Prem Chand

  • (iii)

    Vibhuti Bhushan

  • (iv)

    Bhartendu Harish Chandra

Q-3 Abanindranath Tagore is known for his
  • (i)

    Paintings

  • (ii)

    Poetry

  • (iii)

    Sculpture

  • (iv)

    Music

Q-4 The Umaid Bhavan in Rajasthan is at
  • (i)

    Gwalior

  • (ii)

    Jodhpur

  • (iii)

    Jaipur

  • (iv)

    Bikaner

Chapter-13   Rise of Indian Nationalism
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
  • 1. Modern Indian nationalism arose to meet the challenges of __________

  • 2. Exploitation of India by the British was direct and harsh before 1857; after 1857 it became __________ and ____________
  • 3. The ________rebellion was an armed rebel lion of the Sikhs against the British policy of divide and rule.

  • 4. The English language acted as a ________ language among the educated Indians.
  • 5. Western scholars like and researched the Indian past ___________ and rediscovered its rich heritage.

  • 6. 'Vande Mataram ' was written by ___________

  • 7. The Indian National Congress was established in the year and its first __________ session was held in ______

  • 8. The most important leaders of the Moderates were __________ and _________

  • 9. The Moderates spread___________ among the people.
Q-2 Match the following columns:
Q-3 State whether the following are true or false:
  • 1. The Revolt of India had failed to rid India of foreign rule.
  • 2. Western education and modern ideas could not bring the Indians together.
  • 3. Racial arrogance and racial discriminations by the British caused great resentment among Indian intellectuals.
  • 4. The Moderates believed in the justice and fair play of the British.
  • 5. The Moderates presented their grievances to the British in the form of protests and strikes.
  • 6. The Swadeshi and Boycott Movement started after the division of Bengal.
  • 7. Separate electorates for the Muslims were introduced by the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms.
  • 8. The Lucknow Pact was between the Moderates and the Extremists.
Q-4 Answer the following questions in short:
  • 1. What was Swadeshi and Boycott Movement?
  • 2. What led to the rise of extremists in the Congress?
  • 3. Define nationalism.
  • 4. In what way did the Revolt of 1857 impact the rise of nationalism in India?
  • 5. When was the Indian National Congress established? Mention the main aims of the Congress.
Q-5 Answer the following questions in long:
  • 1. What was the main difference between the Moderates and the Extremists?
  • 2. Give the reasons given by the British for dividing Bengal. What was the real reason behind this move?
  • 3. Discuss the role played by the British in the formation of the Muslim League.
  • 4. What methods did the revolutionaries adopt to liberate India from British rule? What were the weaknesses of their movement?

  • 5. What role did A.O. Hume play in the establishment of the Indian National Congress?
Chapter-14   Struggle for Indian Freedom 1919-1947
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
  • (1)
    Mahatma Gandhi dominated the Indian politics from 1919 to ..................... (1975/1947)

  • (2)
    Gandhiji used Satyagraha and ................... (ahimsa/violence) against the British.

  • (3)
    The Montague-Chelmsford Reform was also cal led the Government of ................... (India/Britain) Act of 1919.

  • (4)
    General ................... (Dyer/Montague) ordered fire at the crowd in Jallianwala Bagh on April 13,1919.

  • (5)
    ................. (khadi/charkha) became the symbol of freedom.

Q-2 Match the Columns:
Q-3 Say if the sentences are True/False:
  • 1. The Government of India Act of 1919 is also known as the Minto reform

  • 2. The Non-Cooperation Movement was suspended by Gandhiji following the outbreak of violence at Chauri-Chaura in U.P.
  • 3. In July 1947, the British Parliament passed the India Independence Act which provided for the setting up of two independent dominions.
Q-4 Answer the following questions in brief:
  • 1. When was the Azad Hind Fauj formed? Who were associated with its formation?
  • 2. Why was the Cabinet Mission called so ? Who were its members?

  • 3. Who were the Swarajists ? What was their purpose?

  • 4. When did Gandhiji enter the National Movement?
  • 5. When and where was the demand for Poorna Swaraj raised?
Q-5 Answer the following questions in detail:
  • 1. Point out the significant development that took place between year 1928 and 1930.
  • 2. When was the Civil Disobedience Movement launched? Mention other programmes involved with the movement.
  • 3. What were the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1935?
  • 4. Describe the contribution of Mahatma Gandhi in India's struggle for Freedom.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Where did the Gandhiji break the Salt law?
  • (i)

    Sabarmati Ashram

  • (ii)

    Bardoli

  • (iii)

    Dandi

  • (iv)

    Kheda

Q-2 Where did Gandhiji first used Satyagraha?
  • (i)

    Kheda

  • (ii)

    Ahmedabad

  • (iii)

    South Africa

  • (iv)

    Champaran

Q-3 Who organised the Indian National Army?
  • (i)

    Subhash Chandra Bose

  • (ii)

    Captain Mohan Singh

  • (iii)

    None of these

  • (iv)

    Ras Bihar Bose

Q-4 The first Governor General of India was
  • (i)

    Lord Mountbatten

  • (ii)

    Chakravarti Rajgopalachari

  • (iii)

    Dr. Rajendra Prasad

  • (iv)

    None of these

Chapter-15   Resources: Types & Development
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
  • 1. ___________ resources are only found in certain places
  • 2. Any substance become resource only, when it has ________ and ________ in human life.

  • 3. _________soil found in northern plains of India

  • 4. Most of the metallic minerals are _________

Q-2 State 'True' or 'False'
  • 1. Resources are a function of human activities.
  • 2. Technology is available to reproduce non-renewable resources, like iron ore, manganese, etc.
  • 3. Non-renewable resources are found in unlimited quantity.
  • 4. Ubiquitous resources are found in certain places only.
  • 5. Education and health helps in improving human resources.
  • 6. Time and technology are two important factors which convert a substance into a resource.
Q-3 Give answer in short:
  • 1. Define resources.
  • 2. What is the importance of Time and Technology in the development of resources?
  • 3. Distinguish between biotic and abiotic resources.
  • 4. Define actual resources.
  • 5. What do you mean by localized resources?
  • 6. Which two factors help in the development of human resources?
  • 7. What are human made resources?
  • 8. Define sustainable development.
  • 9. What do you mean by potential resources?
  • 10. Give any two examples of renewable resources.
Q-4 Give answer in detail:
  • 1. Differentiate between renewable and non-renewable resources.
  • 2. Classify the resources on the basis of distribution.
  • 3. Why human resource is important in the development of natural resources?
  • 4. What do you mean by the conservation of resources?
  • 5. What is the importance of resources in country's economy?
  • 6. Suggest some measures to save our mother earth.
Q-5

Match the following Columns:

Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Which of the following are the examples of ubiquitous resources?
  • (i)

    Coal

  • (ii)

    Petroleum

  • (iii)

    All the above

  • (iv)

    Air

Q-2 Which of the following is an abiotic resource?
  • (i)

    Plants

  • (ii)

    Minerals

  • (iii)

    Human beings

  • (iv)

    Animals

Q-3 Which of the following is related with development of a substance into a resource?
  • (i)

    Utility

  • (ii)

    Value

  • (iii)

    Technology

  • (iv)

    All the above

Q-4 Which is an example of renewable resource?
  • (i)

    Gold

  • (ii)

    Iron ore

  • (iii)

    Aluminum

  • (iv)

    Water

Q-5 Which of the following factors affect the distribution of natural resources?
  • (i)

    Terrain

  • (ii)

    Climate

  • (iii)

    Attitude

  • (iv)

    All of the above

Chapter-16   Natural Resources: Land and Soil
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
  • 1. A vertical cross section of horizons in soil is known as ________

  • 2. Soil_________ and depletion are the major threats to soil as a resource.
  • 3. Colour, texture, chemical properties and mineral content in soil depend upon ________

  • 4.___________ occurs on steep slopes.
  • 5. _______are effective in coastal and dry regions.

Q-2 State 'True' or 'False
  • 1. Crop rotation is necessary to maintain soil fertility.

  • 2. When continuous production is taken from a soil, it increases its fertility.

  • 3. About 70% part of the world is inhabited.
  • 4. Climate is the most important factor which affects the distribution of soil.
  • 5. The amount of total land available to us is extremely limited.
Q-3 Match the Columns.
Q-4 Give answer in short:
  • 1. Why is land considered as very important resource?
  • 2. Which factors are responsible for the distribution of population?
  • 3. Define community land.
  • 4. What do you mean by land use?
  • 5. Mention the human activities which are responsible for land degradation.
  • 6. Suggest any two ways to reduce the problem of land degradation.
  • 7. What is soil?
  • 8. What are the factors responsible for soil formation?
  • 9. Name two layers of soil.
  • 10. What is soil profile?
  • 11. What do you mean by soil erosion?

  • 12. Mention the methods to check soil erosion in short.
  • 13. What do you mean by soil degradation?
Q-5 Give answer in detail.
  • 1. Differentiate between private land and community land.
  • 2. Discuss the land utilization pattern of India.
  • 3. Discuss land conservation methods in detail.
  • 4. Differentiate between top soil and subsoil.
  • 5. What do you mean by soil fertility? How can it be maintained?

  • 6. Differentiate between gully erosion and sheet erosion.
  • 7. Discuss any four soil conservation methods in detail.
  • 8. Discuss the factors of formation of soil in detail.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The percent of uninherited land on the earth is
  • (i)

    60%

  • (ii)

    30%

  • (iii)

    70%

  • (iv)

    50%

Q-2 

Which of the following factors do not affect the distribution of population 

  • (i)

    Soil

  • (ii)

    Availability of minerals

  • (iii)

    Types of crops.

  • (iv)

    Climate

Q-3 What is the total geographical area of India?
  • (i)

    3.27 million sq. km

  • (ii)

    3.28 million sq. km

  • (iii)

    3.32 million sq. km

  • (iv)

    3.38 million sq. km

Q-4 Which of the following factors are responsible for land degradation?
  • (i)

    Overgrazing

  • (ii)

    Mining

  • (iii)

    All the above

  • (iv)

    Deforestation

Q-5 Which of the following constituent substances are found in soil?
  • (i)

    Silica

  • (ii)

    Clay

  • (iii)

    Humus

  • (iv)

    All the above

Chapter-17   Natural Resources : Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
  • 1. __________biosphere reserve is located in Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
  • 2.____________forests are found in the areas where there is abundant supply of heat and rain available

  • 3. Most of the water of the earth is found in the _________

  • 4. ___________ irrigation is very useful in dry regions.
  • 5. Coak, Oak, Olive are important trees found in the ____ forests.
Q-2 State 'True' or 'False':
  • 1. Deciduous forests do not shed their leaves
  • 2. Fresh water is found in the oceans
  • 3. Mahogany, ebony, rosewood, etc. are grown in evergreen forests.
  • 4. Coniferous forests are only found in the northern hemisphere.
  • 5. Oceans cover two-thirds of the earth.
Q-3 Match the Columns:
Q-4 Give answer in short:
  • 1. What do you mean by multi-purpose projects?
  • 2. Give the sources of fresh water.
  • 3. Name the countries which are facing water scarcity.
  • 4. Give any two uses of water.
  • 5. Define National Parks
  • 6. What do you mean by a biosphere reserve?
  • 7. Give any two characteristics of Mediterranean forests.
  • 8. Give any two productive roles of forests.
  • 9. Give any two methods of water conservation.
  • 10. Give any two varieties of trees found in the deciduous forests
Q-5 Give answer in detail:
  • 1. Discuss the protective and productive role of forests.
  • 2. Discuss the importance of wildlife.

  • 3. How can we conserve water resources? Explain.
  • 4. Differentiate between evergreen forests and deciduous forests.
  • 5. Give description about the water resources of India.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The earth is also called
  • (i)

    red planet

  • (ii)

    water planet

  • (iii)

    green planet

  • (iv)

    brightest planet

Q-2 The percent of fresh water available for human use
  • (i)

    4%
  • (ii)

    1%
  • (iii)

    3%

  • (iv)

    5%

Q-3 The total renewable water resources of India are
  • (i)

    1897 sq km

  • (ii)

    1895 sq km

  • (iii)

    1893 sq km

  • (iv)

    1894 sq km

Q-4 Where is 'Sunderban' biosphere reserve located?
  • (i)

    Uttarakhand

  • (ii)

    West Bengal

  • (iii)

    Tamil Nadu

  • (iv)

    Kerala

Q-5 

Which of the following animal is on the verge of extinction 

  • (i)

    Lion

  • (ii)

    Black Buck

  • (iii)

    AlI of the above

  • (iv)

    Tiger

Chapter-18   Agriculture
Q-1 Fill in the blanks
  • 1. _____________is an equatorial crop.
  • 2.___________ is well grown in flood plains where soils are renewed every year.
  • 3. Jowar, Bajra and ragi are the important _________

  • 4. Tea and coffee are included in ____________crops
  • 5.________ agriculture is also known as slash and burn agriculture.
Q-2 State 'True' or 'False
  • 1. In mixed farming, mining and agriculture are done over a single piece of land.
  • 2. Maize is used both as food and fodder
  • 3. Rearing of silkworm for the production of silk fibre is known as sericulture

  • 4. Rice is the major food crop of the world.
  • 5. In subsistence farming, crops are grown for sale purposes.
Q-3 Match the Columns:
Q-4 Give answer in short:
  • 1. What do you mean by agriculture?
  • 2. Define sericulture.
  • 3. Give the factors which affect the agriculture.
  • 4. Give the main types of agriculture
  • 5. Give any two conditions ideal for the growth of millets.
  • 6. What do you mean by plantation agriculture?
  • 7. What do you mean by mixed farming?
  • 8. Define subsistence agriculture.
  • 9. Mention the important wheat producing areas.
  • 10. What kind of soil is required for the growth of maize?
  • 11 . Mention important plantation crops.
  • 12. Which crop is called "Golden Fibre"?

Q-5 Give answer in detail:
  • 1. What do you mean by a farm system?
  • 2. Differentiate between subsistence farming and commercial farming
  • 3. Differentiate between mixed farming and plantation farming.
  • 4. Compare an Indian farm with a farm found in the USA.
  • 5. Discuss the conditions required for the growth of rice.
  • 6. Give a brief description about a tea plantation.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Which of the following activity is considered as primary activity?
  • (i)

    Communication

  • (ii)

    Banking

  • (iii)

    Agriculture

  • (iv)

    Transport

Q-2 Which of the following crops grown in subsistence agriculture?
  • (i)

    Rubber

  • (ii)

    Potato

  • (iii)

    Tea

  • (iv)

    Sugarcane

Q-3 Which of the following factor plays an important role in the development of agriculture?
  • (i)

    Topography

  • (ii)

    Climate

  • (iii)

    Soil

  • (iv)

    All the above

Q-4 Which is the leading producer of coffee in the world?
  • (i)

    Brazil

  • (ii)

    South Africa

  • (iii)

    China

  • (iv)

    India

Q-5 Which of the following is a horticulture crop?
  • (i)

    Mango

  • (ii)

    Onion

  • (iii)

    AlI the above

  • (iv)

    Cabbage

Chapter-19   Manufacturing Industries
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
  • 1. Cotton textile industry is an___________ industry of India.
  • 2.___________ is also called as the Manchester of India.
  • 3. Silicon Valley is famous for ________

  • 4.___________is well known textile centre of Japan.
  • 5. _____________climate is suitable for spinning and weaving.
Q-2 State if the sentences are 'True' or 'False'
  • 1. Textile mills in Osaka are completely dependent upon imported raw material.
  • 2. Karnataka Government was the last to announce IT Policy in Indian in 1992.
  • 3. Large scale industries invest huge amount of money as well as employed large number of people
  • 4. Steel is the output of iron and steel industry.
  • 5. Cotton textile industry is the backbone of modern industry.
Q-3 Match the following:
Q-4 Answer the following questions in short:
  • 1. List the factors affecting industrial location.
  • 2. Name the two important centres of cotton textiles in the world.
  • 3. Differentiate between public sector and private sector industries by giving suitable examples
  • 4. Define the word 'Industry'.
  • 5. Give two uses of steel.
  • 6. What do you mean by an industrial region?
  • 7. Name the important natural fibres found in India.
  • 8. Name any two synthetic fibres.
  • 9. Where and when was the first iron and steel plant established?
  • 10. Mention any two features of cotton textile industry.
Q-5 Answer the following questions in detail:
  • 1. Trace the development of cotton textile industries.
  • 2. Differentiate between agro-based industry and mineral-based industry.
  • 3. Discuss the factors which were responsible for the ideal location of Tata Iron and Steel Industry in Jamshedpur
  • 4. Why is Ahmedabad considered as the "Manchester of India'.
  • 5. Why did rapid growth of cotton textile industry take place in Mumbai after 1854?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Which of the following is an example of industries?
  • (i)

    Coal mining

  • (ii)

    Manufacturing of leather goods

  • (iii)

    All the above

  • (iv)

    Weaving and spinning

Q-2 Which of the following industries is an example of agro-based industry?
  • (i)

    Automobile

  • (ii)

    Cotton textile

  • (iii)

    Watch making

  • (iv)

    Aluminum smelting

Q-3 Which of the following industry comes under private sector?
  • (i)

    Hero-Honda

  • (ii)

    Steel Authority of India Ltd.

  • (iii)

    Amul

  • (iv)

    Sugar Mill

Q-4 Where was the first successful modern textile mill set up?
  • (i)

    Kolkata

  • (ii)

    Chennai

  • (iii)

    Mumbai

  • (iv)

    Kanpur

Q-5 When was the Tata Iron and Steel Company set up?
  • (i)

    1907

  • (ii)

    1909

  • (iii)

    1905

  • (iv)

    1908

Chapter-20   Human Resources
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
  • 1. The _____________is most commonly expressed as the number of fem ales per 1000 males
  • 2. The USA, Australia, Canada have gained population due to _________

  • 3. The average population density of the world is __________persons/ km Square .

Q-2 State if the sentences are 'True' or 'False'
  • 1. Migration is a major factor of population.
  • 2. Increase in food productivity and better food supply is responsible for the increase in population.
  • 3. Industrial areas provide employment opportunities to large population.
  • 4. Rapid growth of population is the major problem in developed countries.
  • 5. A country is said to have an optimum population when the number of people is in balance with the available resources.
Q-3 Answer the following question in short:
  • 1. What do you mean by human resources?
  • 2. What do you mean by population density? What is the population density of India?
  • 3. Which factors affect the distribution of population?
  • 4. Name any two sparsely populated areas.
  • 5. Name any two densely populated areas.
  • 6. What do you mean by population change?

  • 7. Name the two types of migration.
  • 8. What do you mean by population composition ?

  • 9. Define sex ratio.
  • 10. What do you mean by literacy?
  • 11. What do you understand by optimum population?
  • 12. What is the impact of age group on population?
Q-4 Answer the following question in detail:
  • 1. Define the following demographic terms. i. Birth rate ii. Death rate iii. Migration

  • 2. Discuss the factors responsible for distribution of population in the world.
  • 3. What is the importance of population pyramid? Justify your answer with suitable examples.
  • 4. What are the future prospects for the distribution of population in the world?
  • 5. Discuss the population problems related with developing countries.
  • 6. What problems are faced by in developed countries in respect of population?
  • 7. Discuss the pattern of population growth in the world.
Q-5 Match the following columns:
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Which of the fol lowing countries is the second largest populated country o f the world?
  • (i)

    India

  • (ii)

    China

  • (iii)

    Japan

  • (iv)

    Pakistan

Q-2 Western and Central Europe is densely populated due to the availability of
  • (i)

    water

  • (ii)

    soil

  • (iii)

    none of the above

  • (iv)

    minerals

Q-3 Thar desert is sparsely populated due to
  • (i)

    climate

  • (ii)

    sand

  • (iii)

    mountains

  • (iv)

    thorny bushes

Q-4 Which of the following is the major cause of population growth?
  • (i)

    birth rate

  • (ii)

    death rate

  • (iii)

    migration

  • (iv)

    natural growth rate

Q-5 

Which of the following country is the example of population change due to emigration

 

  • (i)

    Sudan
  • (ii)

    USA
  • (iii)

    Canada
  • (iv)

    Australia
Chapter-21   The Indian Constitution
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
  • 1. _________was the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly.
  • 2.___________ was the first Prime Minister of the Republic of India.

  • 3.__________ was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee.
  • 4. A nation is ______________when it is free into its internal and external matters.
  • 5. Dissent is an important feature of _________

Q-2 Write True or False against each statement:
  • 1. Constitution is the set of rules which helps the government of a country to run.
  • 2. January 26 is celebrated as the Independence Day.
  • 3. Laws are not necessary for the smooth running of the society.
  • 4. Salt Satyagraha was started by Gandhiji.
  • 5. Liberty means freedom of everything, i.e., good or bad.
Q-3 Answer the following questions in brief:
  • 1. What is a constitution?
  • 2. What is contained in the constitution of a country?
  • 3. Why do we need laws?
  • 4. Who was the chairperson of the Drafting Committee?
  • 5. What is socialism?
Q-4 Answer the following questions in detail
  • 1. What do you mean by the terms Articles and Schedules?
  • 2. What is the Preamble of our country and what is its importance?
  • 3. What is the importance of Constitution?
  • 4. What was the salt Law? Why did Gandhi ji break it?

  • 5. Explain the significance of Dandi March.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 A state where all religions receive due respect is called
  • (i)

    feudatistic
  • (ii)

    secular
Q-2 A nation which has an elected person as its head is called a
  • (i)

    republic
  • (ii)

    monarchy
Q-3 Fraternity means
  • (i)

    brotherhood
  • (ii)

    liberty
Q-4 Indian Constitution came into force on
  • (i)

    15 August 1947
  • (ii)

    26 January 1 950
Chapter-22   Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
  • 1. Rights and _______ are equally important.

  • 2. It is our ___________ to defend the country.
  • 3. Right to assemble____________ and without arms is guaranteed to Indian citizens.
  • 4. Right to move the court is granted by _______

Q-2 Write the correct Fundamental Rights:
  • 1. No one can be prevented four using a public park.
  • 2. Every child has the right to seek admission to school.
  • 3. All citizens have freedom of religious belief.
  • 4. People can be made to work only against wages.
Q-3 Answer the following:
  • 1. What is meant by fundamental rights?
  • 2. list the fundamental rights under the Constitution.
  • 3. Explain briefly what you understand by 'Right to Constitutional Remedies'.
  • 4. Discuss the duties of the Indian citizens.
  • 5. Explain the relationship between Fundamental Rights and human rights.
Q-4 Match the columns:
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The minority ____ open their own educational institutions.
  • (i)

    Can
  • (ii)

    Cannot
Q-2 Right to reside in any part of the country is a part of the
  • (i)

    Right to Equality
  • (ii)

    Right to freedom
Q-3 Right to move to the Supreme Court is granted by
  • (i)

    Right to Equality
  • (ii)

    Right to constitutional remedies.
Q-4 

India is a __________

  • (i)

    Secular State
  • (ii)

    Religions State
Chapter-23   Parliamentary Government
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
  • 1. A person seeking election to the Rajya Sabha should have acquired ___ years of age
  • 2.__________ is more powerful than the Rajya Sabha.
  • 3. The ___________ plays an important role in the election of the President and the Vice President.
  • 4. The members of the ______________are directly elected by the people.
  • 5. The __________is dissolved after every five years.
Q-2 Write true or false:
  • 1. A Money Bill can be initated in the Rajya Sabha.
  • 2. The normal life of the Lok Sabha is six years.
  • 3. Our Parliament consists of the President, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
  • 4. The Rajya Sabha is a permanent house.
  • 5. The President can nominate 12 members in the Lok Sabha.
Q-3 Answer the following questions in short :
  • 1. How are the members of the Lok Sabha elected?
  • 2. What are the qualifications for a person to be elected as a member of the Lok Sabha?

  • 3. What are the functions of the India Parliament?

  • 4. What is Budget session?

  • 5. How does a bill become a law?
  • 6. What is a Money Bill?
Q-4 Answer the following questions in long:
  • 1. What are the main characteristics of the Parliamentary form of government?
  • 2. Why did India have parliamentary form of government?
  • 3. Why is Lok Sabha known as the house of the people?
  • 4. What is the meaning of constituency? What do you mean by 'Reserved Constituency'?
  • 5. Give reasons why some members of the family may not have the right to vote.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The session of the Parliament, in which the Budget is presented, discussed and passed is called a
  • (i)

    Budget Sesson,

  • (ii)

    Parliament session

Q-2 The President can nominate members in the Lok Sabha.
  • (i)

    2
  • (ii)

    3
  • (iii)

    4
Q-3 A person should have acquired the age of to become a member of the Lok Sabha.
  • (i)

    25
  • (ii)

    18
  • (iii)

    21
Q-4 The Rajya Sabha is a house.
  • (i)

    Permanent
  • (ii)

    Temporary
Q-5 The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha can be members.
  • (i)

    250
  • (ii)

    238
  • (iii)

    240
Chapter-24   The Judiciary
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
  • 1. The___________ is the highest court in Ind ia.
  • 2. The courts at the district levels are known as _______

  • 3. The judges of the Supreme Court retire at the age of ________

  • 4. Judges of the High Court and the Supreme Court are appointed by the _______

  • 5. Popular courts which decides cases at a much quicker speed are called _______

Q-2 State True or False
  • 1. The Supreme court is the highest court of appeal in India.
  • 2. Any citizen of India can approach a High Court directly if he feels that his Fundamental Rights are being violated.
  • 3. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court is appointed by the Prime Minister.
  • 4. Popular Courts which decide cases much quicker are called subordinate courts.
  • 5. The total number of judges besides the Chief Justice cannot be more than 35.
Q-3 Answer the following questions in short:
  • 1. Name the highest court of Justice in the country?
  • 2. What are Lok Adalats?
  • 3. What is the importance of courts in India?
  • 4. Mention two qualifications needed for being the Judge of the Supreme Court?
Q-4 Answer the following questions in detail:
  • 1. Why do we need the courts of Justice?
  • 2. How are Lok Adalat useful?
  • 3. How are the Judges of the Supreme Court appointed?
  • 4. Mention some of the powers of the Supreme Court?
  • 5. What is the difference between civil and criminal cases?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The High Court is the highest court of Justice at the level.
  • (i)

    State
  • (ii)

    District
Q-2 

Matters relating to violation of fundamental rights can be dealt with by ______

  • (i)

    High Court

  • (ii)

    the Governor
Q-3 The Chief Justice of a H igh Court is appointed by
  • (i)

    The President

  • (ii)

    the Governor

Q-4 The_________ is the highest court of appeal in India
  • (i)

    Supreme Court
  • (ii)

    High Court
Chapter-25   Elements of Judicial Structure
Q-1 Fill in the blanks
  • 1. The maintenance of law and order is the most important function of the__________
  • 2. Police keeps a close watch on _________elements
  • 3. The_________ cannot refuse to register the complaint.
  • 4. The _____________at the District headquarters is an officer of the Indian Police services.
Q-2 Say if the following sentences are True or False:
  • 1. The Supreme Court hears appeals against the courts.
  • 2. FIR means First information Report.
  • 3. Supreme Court hears the appeal of the one who breaks the rules.
  • 4. Many criminal cases are settled out of court.
  • 5. Murder is an example of a criminal case.
Q-3 Match the following columns
Q-4 Answer the following in detail:
  • 1. What are civil and criminal cases?
  • 2. Give two examples each of civil and criminal cases?
  • 3. What is FIR?

  • 4. Who is a public prosecutor?
Q-5 Answer the following questions:
  • 1. What are the important functions of the Police?
  • 2. What is the importance of FIR?
  • 3. What is the role of a Public Prosecutor?
  • 4. What are the Supreme Courts directions on the FIR?
Chapter-26   Social Justice and the Marginalised
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
  • 1. The _____________Commission was concerned with the welfare of the Backward classes.
  • 2. Weaker sections of the society who lives in tribal areas are called ________

  • 3. The population of SCs according to 2001 census is ______

  • 4. About 15% of the jobs under the government are reserved for the _______

  • 5. Weaker sections of the society other than scheduled castes or scheduled tribes are called __________
Q-2 State True or False:
  • 1. The Constitution of India makes untouchability an offence

  • 2. The scheduled castes population in concentrated in Uttar Pradesh only.
  • 3. 27% of the seats under the government has been reseNed for the scheduled tribes.
  • 4. Articles 29 and 30 deals with safeguarding the rights of the minorities
  • 5. According to 2001 census the percentage of scheduled tribes was 84.3%.
Q-3 Match the following:
Q-4 Answer the following questions in short:
  • 1. What are the marginalized groups?
  • 2. Who are scheduled tribes?
  • 3. What was the population of scheduled castes according to 2001 census?
  • 4. Define untouchability.
Q-5 Answer the following question in detail:
  • 1. Explain the meaning of Social and Economic Justice?
  • 2. Mention some of the Constitutional Provisions relating to SCs and STs?
  • 3. What measures have been taken by the Government to promote the backward classes of the society.
  • 4. What are the different forms of untouchability?
  • 5. What steps have been taken by the government to eradicate untouchability?
Chapter-27   Economic Presence of the Government
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
  • 1. _________serves many purposes at one and the same time.
  • 2. Self employment was provided under the ___________yojna.
  • 3._________ Scheme include Integrated Rural Development Programme.
  • 4.______________ Plans are there for the economic development of the country.
Q-2 Match the following:
Q-3 State if the sentences are True or False:
  • 1. Upto 2007 the Planning Commission has developed eleven five year plans.
  • 2. Jawahar Gram Samridhi Vojna aimed at providing self-employment to the rural people.
  • 3. Employment Assurance Scheme was launched in 2002-03.
  • 4. Planning Commission was formed after the __________.

Q-4 Answer the following:
  • 1. Why was there a need to set up the Planning Commission?
  • 2. Define Planning Commission?
  • 3. What steps have been taken by the government to improve the condition of the Indian agriculture?
  • 4. Mention some of the programmes started by the government to reduce poverty in our country?
  • 5. What efforts have been made by the government to reduce unemployment?