Question bank

Chapter-1   World During Modern Age
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:

(1) Historians have tried to divide history into ancient, _____ and modern period.

(2) The French Revolution took place in ______

(3)____________ century is regarded as the darkest period in the history of India.

(4) The invention of steam engine symbolizes the _______

(5) Because of the invention of the ____________, a lot of books began to be available.

Q-2 State it the sentences are True/False:

(1) For most of the 18th century, India continued 10 suffer and crumble under the British rule.

(2) Industrial Revolution started with the mechanisation of the textile industries.

(3) Harsh working conditions were not common before the Industrial Revolution.

(4) Rousseau was a great philosopher of France.

(5) Lenin led the French Revolution.

Q-3 Answer the following questions in short:

(1) How was the period of the 18th century in India?

(2) How did the Industrial Revolution start?

(3) What is nationalism?

(4) Who was Lenin?

(5) What is imperilism?

Q-4 Answer the following questions in long:

(1) Why did the French Revolution take place?

(2) What were the features of the Industrial Revolution ? Also state its impact on India.

(3) What do you understand by the term 'Modern Period'? What is the duration of this period in the history of India ?

(4) Throw light upon the various sources of modern Indian history.

(5) How have historical buildings and paintings proved useful as a source of history [.i.e. the history of Modern India]?

Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 

During ___________ England was undergoing the Industrial Revolution.

(i)

The 18th century

(ii)

None of these

(iii)

The 16th century

(iv)

The 17th century

Q-2 Ordinary working people found increased opportunities for-

(i)

employment

(ii)

migration

(iii)

revolution

(iv)

all of these
Q-3 The factory system was largely responsible for the rise of the modern-

(i)

cities

(ii)

mall

(iii)

village

(iv)

all of these
Q-4 

History has been divided into ______ parts.

(i)

one

(ii)

two

(iii)

three
Q-5 During which period did Babur, Humayun and Akbar rule over India?

(i)

medieval

(ii)

modern

(iii)

ancient
Q-6 The first socialist republic was let up in

(i)

the USSR

(ii)

the U.K

(iii)

the USA
Q-7 The U.N. was set up after

(i)

The second world war

(ii)

The third world war

(iii)

The first world war
Chapter-2   European Powers in India
Q-1 Fill in the blanks

(1)___________ discovered the sea route to India.

(2) The Europeans initially came to India for _______

(3) The conflict between the British and the French led to the___________ wars

(4) Madras (Chennai), Calcutta (Kolkata) and Bombay (Mumbai) were called _____ towns.

(5) The__________ war of succession triggered off the Carnatic war in India.

(6) The British factory at__________ was captured by Siraj-ud-Daulah.

(7) __________was an important banker of Bengal.

(8) The territories of_______,__________ and ____ were given to the British by Siraj-ud Daulah.

(9) Elizabeth I was the queen of ________

Q-2 Match the following:
Q-3 Say if the following sentences are True/False:
1. In 1660, London merchants formed the East India Company.
2. Vasco da Gama reached India in 1492.
3. The modern period in India began at the same time as in Europe.
4. The three Carnatic wars proved decisive for the victory of the English over their French rivals.
Q-4 Answer the following questions in short:

1. Who was Adam Smith ?

2. What was the basis of mercantilism?
3. Who were the first to trade with India?
4. Where were the Dutch present in India?
5. Who permitted various European trading stations in his territory?
Q-5 Answer the following questions in long:
1. Why was Siraj-ud-Daulah defeated in the Battle of Plassey?
2. What was the System of Dual Government?
3. Explain the battle of Buxar
4. Explain the victory that made Clive the virtual master of Bengal.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 

In the battle of Plassey fought in 1757, Nawab Siraj-ud-Daulah of Bengal was defeated by the British forces. Who led the British forces in this battle?

(i)

Robert Clive

(ii)

Lord Dalhousie

(iii)

Lord Wellesley

(iv)

Cornwallis
Q-2 Vasco da Gama reached Calicut on May 20,

(i)

1498

(ii)

1496

(iii)

1495

(iv)

1497
Q-3 

The mercantile theory held that colonies exist for the _________of the mother country and are useless unless they help to achieve profit.

(i)

Economic benefit

(ii)

Social benefit

(iii)

All of these

(iv)

Benefit
Chapter-3   Expansion of European Powers in India
Q-1 State if the following sentences are True/False:
1. The Doctrine of Lapse was formulated in 1834.
2. Warren Hastings became the Governor-General of India in 1772
3. Lord Wellesley is associated with the policy of Subsidiary Alliance.
4. In 1799, Tipu Sultan defeated the British.
5. Awadh was annexed under the Doctrine of Lapse.
Q-2 Answer the following questions in short:

1. What is the Doctrine of Lapse?

2. What is the Subsidiary Alliance?

3. What led to the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War? State its consequences.
4. When was the third Anglo-Maratha war, which proved a total disaster for the Marathas, fought?
5. Who was the British Governor-General of India when Punjab was annexed to the British Empire ?
Q-3 Answer the following questions in detail:
1. Explain the expansion of British powers in India.

2. What were the main features of the Subsidiary Alliance system introduced by Wellesley?

3. Explain the Anglo-Mararatha wars.
4. Explain the relations of the English with Mysore.
5. What were causes of the defeat of the Indian states?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The Anglo-Maratha wars were the three wars fought in India between the Maratha Empire and the

(i)

East India Company

(ii)

Dutch East India Company

(iii)

Company Chartered Company

(iv)

French East India Company
Q-2 

The Treaty of Seringapatam was signed after the defeat of Tipu Sultan in the Third Anglo Mysore war. Between whom were this treaty signed?

(i)

Tipu Sultan and Cornwallis

(ii)

Tipu Sultan and Lord Minto

(iii)

Tipu Sultan and Lord Canning

(iv)

Tipu Sultan and lord Wellesley

Q-3 Which British Governor-General is associated with 'subsidiary alliance'?

(i)

Lord Wellesley

(ii)

Lord Clive

(iii)

Lord Cornwallis

(iv)

Warren Hastings
Q-4 

During the Afghan war which of the following was made the base of operations?

(i)

Amritsar

(ii)

Sindh

(iii)

Delhi

(iv)

Kabul
Q-5 Which were the three states annexed to the British Empire under the Doctrine of Lapse?

(i)

The states of Jhansi, Nagpur and Satara

(ii)

none of these

(iii)

The states of Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata

(iv)

The states of Mumbai, Thane and Pune

Chapter-4   Colonial Army and Civil Administration
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:

1. The Pitt's Act, 1784, was introduced by the British Prime Minister ...................... .

2. The Charter Act of ...................... centralised the British administration in India.
3. The Charter Act of ...................... marked the beginning of a Parliamentary system in India.

4. The system of open competition to the Indian Civil Service was introduced by the Act of .........................

5. Lord ...................... organised the police into a regular force.
Q-2 Write True or False:
1. The Charter Act of 1813 abolished the Company's monopoly of trade altogether.
2. The highest position an Indian could hold in the army was that of a Subedar.
3. The Supreme Court was established in Delhi.
4. The first Governor General of India was Lord Cornwallis.
5. The Civil Service was founded by Lord Dalhousie.
Q-3 Match the columns
Q-4 Answer the following questions in short:
1. Who was the first Governor General of India?
2. When and where was the Supreme Court of India established? Who was the first Chief Justice?
3. What were the major features of the Regulating Act, 1773?
4. Who organised the British Civil Services in India?
Q-5 Descriptive Questions:

1. What is known as the Regulating Act of 1773? State its two features.

2. What were the main provisions of the Pitt's India Act of 1784?

3. What did the Charter Acts of 1813 and 1833 provide?
4. State the impact of legal measures or Acts enacted upto 1856.
5. What changes did Lord Cornwallis introduce in the Indian police system?
Q-6 Answer the following questions briefly:

1. Critically evaluate the main provisions of the Regulating Act of 1773.

2. How were the drawbacks of the Regulating Act removed?

3. What was the need for the civil services and what steps did Lord Cornwallis take to reorganize the civil services?

4. List the important features of the Indian Judicial system under the East India Company. What was its major drawback?

5. Why were the local Indians dissatisfied with the local police?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 A Special Court to try The Company's officials was set up by

(i)

Lord Cornwallis

(ii)

Regulating Act

(iii)

 Pitt's India Act

Q-2 An efficient Indian Civi l Service was organised by

(i)

 Lord Cornwal lis

(ii)

 Warren Hastings

(iii)

Robert Clive

Q-3 A Special Police department was first organised by

(i)

Cornwallis

(ii)

Warren Hastings

(iii)

Clive

Q-4 The Regulation Act fixed the number of the members to

(i)

Three

(ii)

Four

(iii)

 Five

Chapter-5   Rural Life and Society
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:

1. ...................... introduced the ljaradari System in Bengal.

2. The Ryotwari System was introduced in Karnataka and Mysuru at the instance of ....................

3. ....................... made the settlement permanent by a regulation in 1773.

4. Dinbhandu Mitra described the plight of the indigo cultivators in him play ....................... .
5. The Charter Act of ....................... granted the ownership right to indigo planters in India.
Q-2 True/False:
1. Warren Hastings introduced the ljardati system.
2. Lord Dalhousie introduced the Permanent Settlement.
3. Under the Mahalwari system, the government could not increase land revenue periodically.
4. Indigo, tea, coffee are called food crops.
5. The indigo cultivators were forced to grow this crop
Q-3 Match the names in column 'A' with the statements in column '8'.
Q-4 Answer the following questions in detail:
1. What was the economic structure of Indian villages before the advent of the British?

2. Who introduced the Permanent Settlement? Explain.

3. Discuss the effects of economic policies introduced by the British.
4. What led to the deterioration of agriculture in India?

5. What do you know about the commercialization of agriculture under the British?

6. Discuss the impact of the growth of commercial crops in India.
Q-5

Answer the following questions in short:
1. What were the three systems of land revenue adopted by the British?
2. What was Ryotwari System?
3. Explain the Mahalwari System.
4. Explain the ljaradari System.
5. Who were the indigo planters?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 One can imagine India's prosperity quite easily with the fact that it was known as ................ bird in the world.

(i)

Golden

(ii)

Silver

(iii)

Copper

(iv)

All of these

Q-2 The East India Company wanted raw material for its factories in England and required a lot of money for its expanding

(i)

Army

(ii)

Officials

(iii)

All of these

(iv)

Colonies

Q-3 The Permanent Settlement in Bengal was an agreement between the East India Company and-

(i)

Bengali landlords

(ii)

Dutch

(iii)

Bihari landlords

(iv)

All of these

Q-4 The play 'Neel Darpan' was published in

(i)

1860

(ii)

1900

(iii)

1757

(iv)

None

Q-5 The Ryotwari system is associated with:

(i)

Hastings

(ii)

Ashley Eden

(iii)

Cornwallis

(iv)

Thomas Munro

Q-6 Ryotwari system was extended to

(i)

Awadh area

(ii)

Mumbai area

(iii)

Kolkata area

(iv)

Karnataka and Mysuru

Q-7 Indigo-cultivators revolted against the cruel policy of British-

(i)

Indigo planters

(ii)

Indigo farmers

(iii)

Indigo agents

(iv)

All of these

Q-8 

The Moplah peasants of Malabar (North Kerala) organized ........... revolts from 1836 to 1854.

(i)

22

(ii)

23

(iii)

24

(iv)

25

Chapter-6   Colonialism and Tribal Societies
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
1. The largest concentration of the tribes is in .................... .
2. The largest Adivasi population belongs to .................... .
3. A major role is played by .................... with tribal society.
4. The .................... occupied the hil ly region between the Jaintia and the Garo hills.
5. The First Burmese War was fought between ................... .
Q-2 Match the following:
Q-3 State if the sentences are True/False:
1. The United Nations and multilateral agencies generally consider the STs as 'indigenous peoples'.
2. Most of the tribals live in hilly and forest areas
3. Polygamy was prevalent among the tribal societies.

4. Birsa Munda organised the revolts in the Chhotanagpur Region.

Q-4 Answer the following questions in short:
1. What do you understand by the term 'tribe'?
2. Describe the habitation and economy of a tribe.
3. Name the principal tribes inhabiting the north-eastern region and the Chotanagpur region.
4. Who was Birsa Munda?
5. Where do the Santhals live ? What is their chief occupation?
6. Who led the first ever revolt against the landlords and the British?
Q-5 Answer the following questions in long:
1. What changes occurred in the tribal economies and societies in the nineteenth century?
2. Explain the revolts in the north-eastern region.
3. Explain the Santhal rebel lion.
4. Describe the role of Birsa Munda in organising his people against the Zamindars and the British rule.
5. Why did the tribals repeatedly rebel against the British in the north-eastern, eastern and central Indian belt?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The first tribal revolt in the Chotanagpur region was organised by

(i)

Kols

(ii)

Mundas

(iii)

Santhals

(iv)

Khasis

Q-2 

Tirot Singh was the leader of the

(i)

Mundas

(ii)

Khasis

(iii)

Santhals

(iv)

Kukis

Q-3 Siddhu and Kanhu were the leaders of the

(i)

Mundas

(ii)

Santhals

(iii)

Khasis

(iv)

Khonds

Q-4 land dispossession and subjugation by the British and zamindar interests resulted in a number of adivasi-

(i)

Movements

(ii)

Rebellions

(iii)

All of these

(iv)

Revolts

Q-5 The Santhal insurrection broke out in-

(i)

1855

(ii)

1856

(iii)

1857

(iv)

1858

Chapter-7   The Indian Mutiny
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
1. Lord Dalhousie annexed the states of ____________, ______________and _______ on the basis of Doctrine of Lapse.

2. __________, the adopted son of Peshwa Baji Rao II, became one of the leaders of the Revolt.

3. Bahadur Shah II who lived in Delhi was declared ____________

4. General Bakht Khan was leader of the __________

5. The Revolt of 1857 started as a______ of the sepoys.

6. The important centres of the Revolt were _______, _______, ______, ______

Q-2 Match the following:
Q-3 Say if the sentences are True/False:
1. The Revolt of 1857 broke out in a sudden and spontaneous manner.
2. The British forced Indians to sell cheap and buy dear.
3. Artisans were patronized the new British rulers.
4. The Indian rulers were quite satisfied with Lord Dalhousie's Expansionist policies.
5. The Revolt of 1857 started as a mutiny of sepoys in the Company's army
6. The Revolt in Lucknow was led by Nana Saheb.
Q-4 Answer the following questions in short:
1. What is known as the greased cartridges incident?
2. How did the Revolt of 1857 spread to Delhi?
3. Who was Nana Sahib ? What did he do during the course of the Revolt of 1857?
4. Why is Rani Laxmibai of Jhansi most remembered for?
5. Which English officer was responsible for the outbreak of spark of revolt from Meerut?
6. How did the British humiliate the Mughals?
7. What was Mangal Pandey hanged for?
Q-5 Answer the following questions in long:
1. what were the chief causes of the Revolt of 1857?

2. Describe three causes of the failure of the Revolt of 1857.

3. What policy was adopted by the British after suppression of the Revolt?
4. Mention only three main results of the Revolt.
5. Give instances of resistance against the British rule in different parts of the country
Q-6

Identify the following people or places or events:

1. The sepoys of Awadh were infuriated by this event and joined the uprising.

2. This is the place where the first act of rebellion took place.

3. This is what the sepoys crossed to enter Delhi from Meerut.

4. He helped both Nana Sahib and Lakshmibai in their battles.

5. This event in Lucknow was one of the most memorable.

6. He was the actual leader of the rebels in Delhi.

7. These were the people who made the Revolt a popular one.

8. The Mughal dynasty ended with this event.

9. He was an 80-year-old leader in Bihar.

10. This was the place where Bahadur Shah's sons were executed.

Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The British rule brought drastic changes to the lives of ............... Indians.

(i)

poor

(ii)

rich

(iii)

none of these

(iv)

both of these

Q-2 Western education exposed Indians to the new thoughts of-

(i)

liberty

(ii)

equality

(iii)

none of these

(iv)

both of these

Q-3 After the Meerut mutiny the rebels moved to

(i)

Kanpur

(ii)

Lucknow

(iii)

Delhi

(iv)

None of these

Q-4 Who was declrared as the Emperor of India during the Revolt of 1857?

(i)

Bahadur Shah II

(ii)

Alam Shah I

(iii)

Alam Shah II

(iv)

Bahadur Shah I

Q-5 Begum Hazrat Mahal led the revolt at-

(i)

Lucknow

(ii)

Kanpur

(iii)

Arrah

(iv)

Dinapur

Chapter-8   Education and the British Rule
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:

1. Reforms were first started in Bengal because ___________

2. The Muslims remained backward because ____________

3. The Theosophical Society was different from other reform movements because ________

4. Regional languages developed at this time because ________

5. Progress of science was hampered because of ________

6. Swami Dayanand Saraswati founded the_________ in _________

7. Swami Vivekananda was a disciple of __________

8. Temples were the focus of reforms in ________India.

9. __________won the Nobel Prize for Literature in 1913.

Q-2 Match the following:
Q-3 Write True or False for each statement:
1. The practice of 'sati' was abolished in 1829, largely due to the efforts of Raja Ram Mohan Roy.
2. The Hindu Balika Vidyalaya was opened by lshwar Chandra Vidyasagar.
3. The reform movements first started in Bengal and then spread to other parts of India
4. Ramabai Ranade was a reformer of northern India.
Q-4 Answer the following questions in short:
1. Name four evils that existed in the Indian society.
2. Name two Parsi reformers and what was their aim.
3. What steps were taken to encourage the progress of science?
Q-5 Answer the following questions in long
1. What were Raja Ram Mohan Roy's contributions to education?
2. List the different steps taken by the British government for the spread of education.
3. There were some changes in the sphere of literature at this time. What were they?
4. What role did the press play? Name some important newspapers of those days
5. What was the contribution of Singh Sabha Movement to the education?
6. What did lshwar Chandra Vidyasagar do to enhance the education in Indian society?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Who was the founder of Brahmo Samaj?

(i)

Keshav Chandra Sen

(ii)

Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

(iii)

Dwarka Nath Tagore

(iv)

Raja Ram Mohan Roy

Q-2 The Aligarh Muslim University was founded by

(i)

Gopal Krishna Gokhale

(ii)

Raja Ram Mohan Roy

(iii)

Sir Syed Ahmed Khan

(iv)

Swami Dayanand

Q-3 Who was the most important socio-religious reformer of the Muslims in the 19th century?

(i)

Sir Syed Ahmad Khan

(ii)

Muhammad Iqbal

(iii)

Maqsud Ali

(iv)

Mohd Ali Jinnah

Chapter-9   Women and Reform Movements in India
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
1. The Brahmo Sabha was founded in .................... .

2. The first women's uplift movement in Maharashtra was led by .................... .

3. ................... abolished the sati practice by law.

4. The Deccan Society was founded in .................... .

5. The Widow Remarriage Act was passed in .................... .

Q-2 Establish a link between Column A and Column B:
Q-3 State if the sentences are True/False:
1. The sati practice was more prevalent in Bengal.
2. Savitribai was the first woman teacher in Maharashtra.
3. Sati was banned by Raja Ram Mohan Roy.
4. Mahadev Govind Ranade was associated with the Prarthana Samaj.
5. Bethune School was started by lshwar Chandra Vidhyasagar.
6. Most notable educator and legislator, Gopal Krishna Gokhale was inspired by Ranade.
Q-4 Answer the following questions in short:
1. What do you understand by the reform?
2. Who was Raja Ram Mohan Roy? What is his contribution for the cause of the women?
3. Name any four major social ills women suffered during the nineteenth century
4. Who was lshwar Chandra Vildyasagar? What did he do for women's uplift?
5. Who was Swami Dayanand? How did he contribute for women's uplift?

6. Who was the most prominent Muslim reformer? What is his main contribution?

7. Who was Mahadev Govind Ranade?
Q-5 Answer the following questions in long:
1. Explain the reasons, why were the reformers focused on the women's conditions?

2. What was the impact of various reforms in the sphere of legislation?

3. Describe the contribution of Bengal to the upliftment of women.
4. Describe the contribution of Maharashtra in the women's uplift.
5. Evaluate the status of women during the British rule.
6. Why was the need for social reforms for women felt?
7. Evaluate the coming of the British in India as a boost to the works of the Indian reformers.
8. What was the impact of literature on social reforms ?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 'Lokhitavadi' title was given to :

(i)

Keshab Chandra Sen

(ii)

Gopal Hari Deshmukh

(iii)

Govind Ranade

Q-2 The custom of sari was banned by:

(i)

Raja Ram Mohan Roy

(ii)

Lord William Bentinck

(iii)

Lord Macaulay

Q-3 

The Widow Remarriage Act was brought about by the untiring efforts of:

(i)

Raja Ram Mohan Roy

(ii)

lshwar Chandra Vidhyasagar

(iii)

Keshab Chandra Sen

Q-4 lshwar Chandra Vidyasagar championed female education and led the campaign for-

(i)

Remarriage

(ii)

Child education

(iii)

None of these

(iv)

Widow remarriage

Q-5 Reform movements showed the guiding light for ................. to be enacted.

(i)

Laws

(ii)

Rules

(iii)

Traditions

(iv)

All of these

Chapter-10   Colonialism and Urban Change
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
1. Lord .................... set up the Public Works Department
2. . ................... was the first port town occupied by the Portuguese
3. The British established themselves at .................... in 1639.
4. In __________Madras uses raised to the rank of Presidency
S. Delhi was made the capital of India in .................... .
Q-2 Match the columns:
Q-3 Write True or False:

1. The British introduced the railways in India in 1858.

2. The British first established themselves in Bombay

3. Pondicherry was established by the French.

4. The British shifted the capital from Calcutta to Delhi in 1911 .
5. The Civil Lines contained offices and residences of British officials.
Q-4 Answer the following questions in short:
1. Who was the architect of New Delhi?
2. Name some of the major British monuments in Delhi.
3. Why were the Civil lines and Cantonments built?

4. Who set up a separate Public Works Department during the British rule?

5. Name the city with the highest population of India in 1800s?

6. How did the introduction of railways help urbanization?

7. Why did Calcutta gain importance under the British?

8. How did acquisition of Bombay benefit the British in India?

9. Name some places in Madras which deserve special mention. 

Q-5 Answer the following questions in long:
1. What led to the decline of cities in India during the 19th century?
2. Explain the role of railways in the growth of metropolitan towns and decline of Pre-British towns in India.
3. Why were the municipalities established in big cities during the British rule?
4. Write a note on the British influence on urbanization in India.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Railways were introduced in India in

(i)

1857

(ii)

1858

(iii)

1853

(iv)

1852

Q-2 Calcuta was the capital of India till

(i)

1800

(ii)

1872

(iii)

1911

(iv)

1902

Q-3 Which city was built by a Mughal Emperor?

(i)

Firozabad

(ii)

Siri

(iii)

Shahjahanabad

(iv)

lndraprastha

Q-4 Waltair emerged as a

(i)

Administrative town

(ii)

Commercial town

(iii)

Port town

(iv)

Railway town

Chapter-11   Reforming the Caste System
Q-1

Match the Columns:
Q-2 Fill in the blanks:

1. The caste system was the main cause of .................... .

2. The .................... was against the feeling of world brotherhood.

3. ................... founded the Satya Shodhak Samaj.

4. ................... did his work in Kerala.

5. Mahatma Gandhi founded the .................... Sangh.
Q-3 Write True or False against each statement:
1. The caste system was a check on personal advancement.
2. Jyotiba Phule was born in 1805 in Maharashtra.
3. Veeresalingam worked for the upliftment of the Ezhavas.
4. Dr Bhim Rao Ambedker founded the Theosophical Society.
5. Sri Narayan Guru founded the Rajamundri Association.
6. Ranked below the two top categories were the Vaishyas.

7. Jyotirao, along with his followers, formed the Shodhak Samaj.

8. Dr B.R. Ambedkar's helped to establish the 'Bahishkrit Hitkarini Sabha'.
Q-4 Answer the following questions in brief:
1 . What do you understand by caste system?
2. Who was Jyotiba Phule ? What was his contribution in the field of caste reforms?
3. Describe the work of Veeresalingam for caste reforms.
4. Who was Dr Bhim Rao Ambedkar?
5. Who was Sri Narayan Guru ? Why is he remembered?
6. Where did Narayana Guru belong to?
7. What was the percentage of the population of "untouchables" in India in 1930s?
Q-5 Answer the following questions in long:
1. How did untouchability prove harmful for the Hindu society?
2. Why did most of the reformers focus on the caste system?

3. What did Gandhi ji do for the cause of the depressed classes?

4. Evaluate the work of Dr B.R. Ambedkar for the uplift of the depressed classes.

5. Define caste system along with its negative aspects.

6. Who gave the term Harijan? Explain his reason of coining this term.
Q-6 Write short notes on the following:
1. Satyasodhak Movement
2. Self-Respect Movement
3. Ezhava Movement
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 ___________ fought to end caste discrimination in Maharashtra.

(i)

Kabir

(ii)

Jyotirao Govindrao Phule

(iii)

Mughal

(iv)

Shri Nanak Guru

Q-2 All India Harijan Sevak Sangh was founded by

(i)

Mahatma Gandhi

(ii)

Dr B.R. Ambedkar

(iii)

None of these

(iv)

Shri Nanak Guru

Q-3 

..................... believe that there is no place for the caste system in Hinduism.

(i)

Swami Vivekananda

(ii)

Swami Ramananda

(iii)

Jyotiba Phule

(iv)

None of these

Q-4 

A threefold division of society into priests, warriors and commoners was a part of the .............. heritage.

(i)

British

(ii)

Mughal

(iii)

Turk

(iv)

Aryan

Chapter-12   Changes in the Arts: Literature, Painting and Architecture
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:

1. Geetanjali was written by ________

2. New literary forms like centuries__________. and __________became popular in the 19th and 20th.

3. Subramania Bharti was a _______ writer.

4. Prince of Wales Museum is situated in ___________

5. The Victoria Terminus is also known as _________

Q-2 True or False:
1. Munshi Premchand was the author of Godan.

2. Sharat Chandra Chatterjee was a Bengali writer

3. Qazi Nazrul Islam was a Bengali poet.
4. Gateway of India is situated in Delhi
5. Amrita Shergil was a genius in oil painting and academic realism.
Q-3 Answer the following questions in short:

1. Mention the famous civic monuments of the British period in Mumbai.

2. Mention the famous buildings of the British period in Chennai.
3. What do you know about Udai Shankar?
4. What do you know about Rabindranath Tagore?
5. What are performing arts?
6. Mention some fiction writers and their famous works.
Q-4

Answer the following questions in detail:
1. Write an account of the development of painting in India during the British rule
2. Describe the progress of performing arts in Indian in the twentieth century.
3. Describe the various styles of architecture of the British monuments in India.
4. Write a note on the progress made in the field of fiction during the twentieth century.
5. Briefly describe the changes brought in modern Indian literature in the nineteenth and early twentieth centuries.
Q-5

Match the Columns:
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Rabindranath Tagore won Nobel Prize for his

(i)

Geetanjali

(ii)

Gora

(iii)

Galpa Guchcha

(iv)

Chare Baire

Q-2 'Rangbhoomi' is a novel written by

(i)

Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

(ii)

Munshi Prem Chand

(iii)

Vibhuti Bhushan

(iv)

Bhartendu Harish Chandra

Q-3 Abanindranath Tagore is known for his

(i)

Paintings

(ii)

Poetry

(iii)

Sculpture

(iv)

Music

Q-4 The Umaid Bhavan in Rajasthan is at

(i)

Gwalior

(ii)

Jodhpur

(iii)

Jaipur

(iv)

Bikaner

Chapter-13   Rise of Indian Nationalism
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:

1. Modern Indian nationalism arose to meet the challenges of __________

2. Exploitation of India by the British was direct and harsh before 1857; after 1857 it became __________ and ____________

3. The ________rebellion was an armed rebel lion of the Sikhs against the British policy of divide and rule.

4. The English language acted as a ________ language among the educated Indians.

5. Western scholars like and researched the Indian past ___________ and rediscovered its rich heritage.

6. 'Vande Mataram ' was written by ___________

7. The Indian National Congress was established in the year and its first __________ session was held in ______

8. The most important leaders of the Moderates were __________ and _________

9. The Moderates spread___________ among the people.
Q-2 Match the following columns:
Q-3 State whether the following are true or false:
1. The Revolt of India had failed to rid India of foreign rule.
2. Western education and modern ideas could not bring the Indians together.
3. Racial arrogance and racial discriminations by the British caused great resentment among Indian intellectuals.
4. The Moderates believed in the justice and fair play of the British.
5. The Moderates presented their grievances to the British in the form of protests and strikes.
6. The Swadeshi and Boycott Movement started after the division of Bengal.
7. Separate electorates for the Muslims were introduced by the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms.
8. The Lucknow Pact was between the Moderates and the Extremists.
Q-4 Answer the following questions in short:
1. What was Swadeshi and Boycott Movement?
2. What led to the rise of extremists in the Congress?
3. Define nationalism.
4. In what way did the Revolt of 1857 impact the rise of nationalism in India?
5. When was the Indian National Congress established? Mention the main aims of the Congress.
Q-5 Answer the following questions in long:
1. What was the main difference between the Moderates and the Extremists?
2. Give the reasons given by the British for dividing Bengal. What was the real reason behind this move?
3. Discuss the role played by the British in the formation of the Muslim League.

4. What methods did the revolutionaries adopt to liberate India from British rule? What were the weaknesses of their movement?

5. What role did A.O. Hume play in the establishment of the Indian National Congress?
Chapter-14   Struggle for Indian Freedom 1919-1947
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:

(1) Mahatma Gandhi dominated the Indian politics from 1919 to ..................... (1975/1947)

(2) Gandhiji used Satyagraha and ................... (ahimsa/violence) against the British.

(3) The Montague-Chelmsford Reform was also cal led the Government of ................... (India/Britain) Act of 1919.

(4) General ................... (Dyer/Montague) ordered fire at the crowd in Jallianwala Bagh on April 13,1919.

(5) ................. (khadi/charkha) became the symbol of freedom.

Q-2 Match the Columns:
Q-3 Say if the sentences are True/False:

1. The Government of India Act of 1919 is also known as the Minto reform

2. The Non-Cooperation Movement was suspended by Gandhiji following the outbreak of violence at Chauri-Chaura in U.P.
3. In July 1947, the British Parliament passed the India Independence Act which provided for the setting up of two independent dominions.
Q-4 Answer the following questions in brief:
1. When was the Azad Hind Fauj formed? Who were associated with its formation?

2. Why was the Cabinet Mission called so ? Who were its members?

3. Who were the Swarajists ? What was their purpose?

4. When did Gandhiji enter the National Movement?
5. When and where was the demand for Poorna Swaraj raised?
Q-5 Answer the following questions in detail:
1. Point out the significant development that took place between year 1928 and 1930.
2. When was the Civil Disobedience Movement launched? Mention other programmes involved with the movement.
3. What were the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1935?
4. Describe the contribution of Mahatma Gandhi in India's struggle for Freedom.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Where did the Gandhiji break the Salt law?

(i)

Sabarmati Ashram

(ii)

Bardoli

(iii)

Dandi

(iv)

Kheda

Q-2 Where did Gandhiji first used Satyagraha?

(i)

Kheda

(ii)

Ahmedabad

(iii)

South Africa

(iv)

Champaran

Q-3 Who organised the Indian National Army?

(i)

Subhash Chandra Bose

(ii)

Captain Mohan Singh

(iii)

None of these

(iv)

Ras Bihar Bose

Q-4 The first Governor General of India was

(i)

Lord Mountbatten

(ii)

Chakravarti Rajgopalachari

(iii)

Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(iv)

None of these

Chapter-15   Resources: Types & Development
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
1. ___________ resources are only found in certain places

2. Any substance become resource only, when it has ________ and ________ in human life.

3. _________soil found in northern plains of India

4. Most of the metallic minerals are _________

Q-2 State 'True' or 'False'
1. Resources are a function of human activities.
2. Technology is available to reproduce non-renewable resources, like iron ore, manganese, etc.
3. Non-renewable resources are found in unlimited quantity.
4. Ubiquitous resources are found in certain places only.
5. Education and health helps in improving human resources.
6. Time and technology are two important factors which convert a substance into a resource.
Q-3 Give answer in short:
1. Define resources.
2. What is the importance of Time and Technology in the development of resources?
3. Distinguish between biotic and abiotic resources.
4. Define actual resources.
5. What do you mean by localized resources?
6. Which two factors help in the development of human resources?
7. What are human made resources?
8. Define sustainable development.
9. What do you mean by potential resources?
10. Give any two examples of renewable resources.
Q-4 Give answer in detail:
1. Differentiate between renewable and non-renewable resources.
2. Classify the resources on the basis of distribution.
3. Why human resource is important in the development of natural resources?
4. What do you mean by the conservation of resources?
5. What is the importance of resources in country's economy?
6. Suggest some measures to save our mother earth.
Q-5

Match the following Columns:
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Which of the following are the examples of ubiquitous resources?

(i)

Coal

(ii)

Petroleum

(iii)

All the above

(iv)

Air

Q-2 Which of the following is an abiotic resource?

(i)

Plants

(ii)

Minerals

(iii)

Human beings

(iv)

Animals

Q-3 Which of the following is related with development of a substance into a resource?

(i)

Utility

(ii)

Value

(iii)

Technology

(iv)

All the above

Q-4 Which is an example of renewable resource?

(i)

Gold

(ii)

Iron ore

(iii)

Aluminum

(iv)

Water

Q-5 Which of the following factors affect the distribution of natural resources?

(i)

Terrain

(ii)

Climate

(iii)

Attitude

(iv)

All of the above

Chapter-16   Natural Resources: Land and Soil
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:

1. A vertical cross section of horizons in soil is known as ________

2. Soil_________ and depletion are the major threats to soil as a resource.

3. Colour, texture, chemical properties and mineral content in soil depend upon ________

4.___________ occurs on steep slopes.

5. _______are effective in coastal and dry regions.

Q-2 State 'True' or 'False

1. Crop rotation is necessary to maintain soil fertility.

2. When continuous production is taken from a soil, it increases its fertility.

3. About 70% part of the world is inhabited.
4. Climate is the most important factor which affects the distribution of soil.
5. The amount of total land available to us is extremely limited.
Q-3 Match the Columns.
Q-4 Give answer in short:
1. Why is land considered as very important resource?
2. Which factors are responsible for the distribution of population?
3. Define community land.
4. What do you mean by land use?
5. Mention the human activities which are responsible for land degradation.
6. Suggest any two ways to reduce the problem of land degradation.
7. What is soil?
8. What are the factors responsible for soil formation?
9. Name two layers of soil.
10. What is soil profile?

11. What do you mean by soil erosion?

12. Mention the methods to check soil erosion in short.
13. What do you mean by soil degradation?
Q-5 Give answer in detail.
1. Differentiate between private land and community land.
2. Discuss the land utilization pattern of India.
3. Discuss land conservation methods in detail.
4. Differentiate between top soil and subsoil.

5. What do you mean by soil fertility? How can it be maintained?

6. Differentiate between gully erosion and sheet erosion.
7. Discuss any four soil conservation methods in detail.
8. Discuss the factors of formation of soil in detail.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The percent of uninherited land on the earth is

(i)

60%

(ii)

30%

(iii)

70%

(iv)

50%

Q-2 

Which of the following factors do not affect the distribution of population 

(i)

Soil

(ii)

Availability of minerals

(iii)

Types of crops.

(iv)

Climate

Q-3 What is the total geographical area of India?

(i)

3.27 million sq. km

(ii)

3.28 million sq. km

(iii)

3.32 million sq. km

(iv)

3.38 million sq. km

Q-4 Which of the following factors are responsible for land degradation?

(i)

Overgrazing

(ii)

Mining

(iii)

All the above

(iv)

Deforestation

Q-5 Which of the following constituent substances are found in soil?

(i)

Silica

(ii)

Clay

(iii)

Humus

(iv)

All the above

Chapter-17   Natural Resources : Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
1. __________biosphere reserve is located in Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.

2.____________forests are found in the areas where there is abundant supply of heat and rain available

3. Most of the water of the earth is found in the _________

4. ___________ irrigation is very useful in dry regions.
5. Coak, Oak, Olive are important trees found in the ____ forests.
Q-2 State 'True' or 'False':
1. Deciduous forests do not shed their leaves
2. Fresh water is found in the oceans
3. Mahogany, ebony, rosewood, etc. are grown in evergreen forests.
4. Coniferous forests are only found in the northern hemisphere.
5. Oceans cover two-thirds of the earth.
Q-3 Match the Columns:
Q-4 Give answer in short:
1. What do you mean by multi-purpose projects?
2. Give the sources of fresh water.
3. Name the countries which are facing water scarcity.
4. Give any two uses of water.
5. Define National Parks
6. What do you mean by a biosphere reserve?
7. Give any two characteristics of Mediterranean forests.
8. Give any two productive roles of forests.
9. Give any two methods of water conservation.
10. Give any two varieties of trees found in the deciduous forests
Q-5 Give answer in detail:
1. Discuss the protective and productive role of forests.

2. Discuss the importance of wildlife.

3. How can we conserve water resources? Explain.
4. Differentiate between evergreen forests and deciduous forests.
5. Give description about the water resources of India.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The earth is also called

(i)

red planet

(ii)

water planet

(iii)

green planet

(iv)

brightest planet

Q-2 The percent of fresh water available for human use

(i)

4%

(ii)

1%

(iii)

3%

(iv)

5%

Q-3 The total renewable water resources of India are

(i)

1897 sq km

(ii)

1895 sq km

(iii)

1893 sq km

(iv)

1894 sq km

Q-4 Where is 'Sunderban' biosphere reserve located?

(i)

Uttarakhand

(ii)

West Bengal

(iii)

Tamil Nadu

(iv)

Kerala

Q-5 

Which of the following animal is on the verge of extinction 

(i)

Lion

(ii)

Black Buck

(iii)

AlI of the above

(iv)

Tiger

Chapter-18   Agriculture
Q-1 Fill in the blanks
1. _____________is an equatorial crop.
2.___________ is well grown in flood plains where soils are renewed every year.

3. Jowar, Bajra and ragi are the important _________

4. Tea and coffee are included in ____________crops
5.________ agriculture is also known as slash and burn agriculture.
Q-2 State 'True' or 'False
1. In mixed farming, mining and agriculture are done over a single piece of land.
2. Maize is used both as food and fodder

3. Rearing of silkworm for the production of silk fibre is known as sericulture

4. Rice is the major food crop of the world.
5. In subsistence farming, crops are grown for sale purposes.
Q-3 Match the Columns:
Q-4 Give answer in short:
1. What do you mean by agriculture?
2. Define sericulture.
3. Give the factors which affect the agriculture.
4. Give the main types of agriculture
5. Give any two conditions ideal for the growth of millets.
6. What do you mean by plantation agriculture?
7. What do you mean by mixed farming?
8. Define subsistence agriculture.
9. Mention the important wheat producing areas.
10. What kind of soil is required for the growth of maize?
11 . Mention important plantation crops.

12. Which crop is called "Golden Fibre"?

Q-5 Give answer in detail:
1. What do you mean by a farm system?
2. Differentiate between subsistence farming and commercial farming
3. Differentiate between mixed farming and plantation farming.
4. Compare an Indian farm with a farm found in the USA.
5. Discuss the conditions required for the growth of rice.
6. Give a brief description about a tea plantation.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Which of the following activity is considered as primary activity?

(i)

Communication

(ii)

Banking

(iii)

Agriculture

(iv)

Transport

Q-2 Which of the following crops grown in subsistence agriculture?

(i)

Rubber

(ii)

Potato

(iii)

Tea

(iv)

Sugarcane

Q-3 Which of the following factor plays an important role in the development of agriculture?

(i)

Topography

(ii)

Climate

(iii)

Soil

(iv)

All the above

Q-4 Which is the leading producer of coffee in the world?

(i)

Brazil

(ii)

South Africa

(iii)

China

(iv)

India

Q-5 Which of the following is a horticulture crop?

(i)

Mango

(ii)

Onion

(iii)

AlI the above

(iv)

Cabbage

Chapter-19   Manufacturing Industries
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
1. Cotton textile industry is an___________ industry of India.
2.___________ is also called as the Manchester of India.

3. Silicon Valley is famous for ________

4.___________is well known textile centre of Japan.
5. _____________climate is suitable for spinning and weaving.
Q-2 State if the sentences are 'True' or 'False'
1. Textile mills in Osaka are completely dependent upon imported raw material.
2. Karnataka Government was the last to announce IT Policy in Indian in 1992.
3. Large scale industries invest huge amount of money as well as employed large number of people
4. Steel is the output of iron and steel industry.
5. Cotton textile industry is the backbone of modern industry.
Q-3 Match the following:
Q-4 Answer the following questions in short:
1. List the factors affecting industrial location.
2. Name the two important centres of cotton textiles in the world.
3. Differentiate between public sector and private sector industries by giving suitable examples
4. Define the word 'Industry'.
5. Give two uses of steel.
6. What do you mean by an industrial region?
7. Name the important natural fibres found in India.
8. Name any two synthetic fibres.
9. Where and when was the first iron and steel plant established?
10. Mention any two features of cotton textile industry.
Q-5 Answer the following questions in detail:
1. Trace the development of cotton textile industries.
2. Differentiate between agro-based industry and mineral-based industry.
3. Discuss the factors which were responsible for the ideal location of Tata Iron and Steel Industry in Jamshedpur
4. Why is Ahmedabad considered as the "Manchester of India'.
5. Why did rapid growth of cotton textile industry take place in Mumbai after 1854?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Which of the following is an example of industries?

(i)

Coal mining

(ii)

Manufacturing of leather goods

(iii)

All the above

(iv)

Weaving and spinning

Q-2 Which of the following industries is an example of agro-based industry?

(i)

Automobile

(ii)

Cotton textile

(iii)

Watch making

(iv)

Aluminum smelting

Q-3 Which of the following industry comes under private sector?

(i)

Hero-Honda

(ii)

Steel Authority of India Ltd.

(iii)

Amul

(iv)

Sugar Mill

Q-4 Where was the first successful modern textile mill set up?

(i)

Kolkata

(ii)

Chennai

(iii)

Mumbai

(iv)

Kanpur

Q-5 When was the Tata Iron and Steel Company set up?

(i)

1907

(ii)

1909

(iii)

1905

(iv)

1908

Chapter-20   Human Resources
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
1. The _____________is most commonly expressed as the number of fem ales per 1000 males

2. The USA, Australia, Canada have gained population due to _________

3. The average population density of the world is __________persons/ km Square .

Q-2 State if the sentences are 'True' or 'False'
1. Migration is a major factor of population.
2. Increase in food productivity and better food supply is responsible for the increase in population.
3. Industrial areas provide employment opportunities to large population.
4. Rapid growth of population is the major problem in developed countries.
5. A country is said to have an optimum population when the number of people is in balance with the available resources.
Q-3 Answer the following question in short:
1. What do you mean by human resources?
2. What do you mean by population density? What is the population density of India?
3. Which factors affect the distribution of population?
4. Name any two sparsely populated areas.
5. Name any two densely populated areas.

6. What do you mean by population change?

7. Name the two types of migration.

8. What do you mean by population composition ?

9. Define sex ratio.
10. What do you mean by literacy?
11. What do you understand by optimum population?
12. What is the impact of age group on population?
Q-4 Answer the following question in detail:

1. Define the following demographic terms. i. Birth rate ii. Death rate iii. Migration

2. Discuss the factors responsible for distribution of population in the world.
3. What is the importance of population pyramid? Justify your answer with suitable examples.
4. What are the future prospects for the distribution of population in the world?
5. Discuss the population problems related with developing countries.
6. What problems are faced by in developed countries in respect of population?
7. Discuss the pattern of population growth in the world.
Q-5 Match the following columns:
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Which of the fol lowing countries is the second largest populated country o f the world?

(i)

India

(ii)

China

(iii)

Japan

(iv)

Pakistan

Q-2 Western and Central Europe is densely populated due to the availability of

(i)

water

(ii)

soil

(iii)

none of the above

(iv)

minerals

Q-3 Thar desert is sparsely populated due to

(i)

climate

(ii)

sand

(iii)

mountains

(iv)

thorny bushes

Q-4 Which of the following is the major cause of population growth?

(i)

birth rate

(ii)

death rate

(iii)

migration

(iv)

natural growth rate

Q-5 

Which of the following country is the example of population change due to emigration

 

(i)

Sudan

(ii)

USA

(iii)

Canada

(iv)

Australia
Chapter-21   The Indian Constitution
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
1. _________was the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly.

2.___________ was the first Prime Minister of the Republic of India.

3.__________ was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee.
4. A nation is ______________when it is free into its internal and external matters.

5. Dissent is an important feature of _________

Q-2 Write True or False against each statement:
1. Constitution is the set of rules which helps the government of a country to run.
2. January 26 is celebrated as the Independence Day.
3. Laws are not necessary for the smooth running of the society.
4. Salt Satyagraha was started by Gandhiji.
5. Liberty means freedom of everything, i.e., good or bad.
Q-3 Answer the following questions in brief:
1. What is a constitution?
2. What is contained in the constitution of a country?
3. Why do we need laws?
4. Who was the chairperson of the Drafting Committee?
5. What is socialism?
Q-4 Answer the following questions in detail
1. What do you mean by the terms Articles and Schedules?
2. What is the Preamble of our country and what is its importance?
3. What is the importance of Constitution?

4. What was the salt Law? Why did Gandhi ji break it?

5. Explain the significance of Dandi March.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 A state where all religions receive due respect is called

(i)

feudatistic

(ii)

secular
Q-2 A nation which has an elected person as its head is called a

(i)

republic

(ii)

monarchy
Q-3 Fraternity means

(i)

brotherhood

(ii)

liberty
Q-4 Indian Constitution came into force on

(i)

15 August 1947

(ii)

26 January 1 950
Chapter-22   Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:

1. Rights and _______ are equally important.

2. It is our ___________ to defend the country.
3. Right to assemble____________ and without arms is guaranteed to Indian citizens.

4. Right to move the court is granted by _______

Q-2 Write the correct Fundamental Rights:
1. No one can be prevented four using a public park.
2. Every child has the right to seek admission to school.
3. All citizens have freedom of religious belief.
4. People can be made to work only against wages.
Q-3 Answer the following:
1. What is meant by fundamental rights?
2. list the fundamental rights under the Constitution.
3. Explain briefly what you understand by 'Right to Constitutional Remedies'.
4. Discuss the duties of the Indian citizens.
5. Explain the relationship between Fundamental Rights and human rights.
Q-4 Match the columns:
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The minority ____ open their own educational institutions.

(i)

Can

(ii)

Cannot
Q-2 Right to reside in any part of the country is a part of the

(i)

Right to Equality

(ii)

Right to freedom
Q-3 Right to move to the Supreme Court is granted by

(i)

Right to Equality

(ii)

Right to constitutional remedies.
Q-4 

India is a __________

(i)

Secular State

(ii)

Religions State
Chapter-23   Parliamentary Government
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
1. A person seeking election to the Rajya Sabha should have acquired ___ years of age
2.__________ is more powerful than the Rajya Sabha.
3. The ___________ plays an important role in the election of the President and the Vice President.
4. The members of the ______________are directly elected by the people.
5. The __________is dissolved after every five years.
Q-2 Write true or false:
1. A Money Bill can be initated in the Rajya Sabha.
2. The normal life of the Lok Sabha is six years.
3. Our Parliament consists of the President, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
4. The Rajya Sabha is a permanent house.
5. The President can nominate 12 members in the Lok Sabha.
Q-3 Answer the following questions in short :
1. How are the members of the Lok Sabha elected?

2. What are the qualifications for a person to be elected as a member of the Lok Sabha?

3. What are the functions of the India Parliament?

4. What is Budget session?

5. How does a bill become a law?
6. What is a Money Bill?
Q-4 Answer the following questions in long:
1. What are the main characteristics of the Parliamentary form of government?
2. Why did India have parliamentary form of government?
3. Why is Lok Sabha known as the house of the people?
4. What is the meaning of constituency? What do you mean by 'Reserved Constituency'?
5. Give reasons why some members of the family may not have the right to vote.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The session of the Parliament, in which the Budget is presented, discussed and passed is called a

(i)

Budget Sesson,

(ii)

Parliament session

Q-2 The President can nominate members in the Lok Sabha.

(i)

2

(ii)

3

(iii)

4
Q-3 A person should have acquired the age of to become a member of the Lok Sabha.

(i)

25

(ii)

18

(iii)

21
Q-4 The Rajya Sabha is a house.

(i)

Permanent

(ii)

Temporary
Q-5 The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha can be members.

(i)

250

(ii)

238

(iii)

240
Chapter-24   The Judiciary
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
1. The___________ is the highest court in Ind ia.

2. The courts at the district levels are known as _______

3. The judges of the Supreme Court retire at the age of ________

4. Judges of the High Court and the Supreme Court are appointed by the _______

5. Popular courts which decides cases at a much quicker speed are called _______

Q-2 State True or False
1. The Supreme court is the highest court of appeal in India.
2. Any citizen of India can approach a High Court directly if he feels that his Fundamental Rights are being violated.
3. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court is appointed by the Prime Minister.
4. Popular Courts which decide cases much quicker are called subordinate courts.
5. The total number of judges besides the Chief Justice cannot be more than 35.
Q-3 Answer the following questions in short:
1. Name the highest court of Justice in the country?
2. What are Lok Adalats?
3. What is the importance of courts in India?
4. Mention two qualifications needed for being the Judge of the Supreme Court?
Q-4 Answer the following questions in detail:
1. Why do we need the courts of Justice?
2. How are Lok Adalat useful?
3. How are the Judges of the Supreme Court appointed?
4. Mention some of the powers of the Supreme Court?
5. What is the difference between civil and criminal cases?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The High Court is the highest court of Justice at the level.

(i)

State

(ii)

District
Q-2 

Matters relating to violation of fundamental rights can be dealt with by ______

(i)

High Court

(ii)

the Governor
Q-3 The Chief Justice of a H igh Court is appointed by

(i)

The President

(ii)

the Governor

Q-4 The_________ is the highest court of appeal in India

(i)

Supreme Court

(ii)

High Court
Chapter-25   Elements of Judicial Structure
Q-1 Fill in the blanks
1. The maintenance of law and order is the most important function of the__________
2. Police keeps a close watch on _________elements
3. The_________ cannot refuse to register the complaint.
4. The _____________at the District headquarters is an officer of the Indian Police services.
Q-2 Say if the following sentences are True or False:
1. The Supreme Court hears appeals against the courts.
2. FIR means First information Report.
3. Supreme Court hears the appeal of the one who breaks the rules.
4. Many criminal cases are settled out of court.
5. Murder is an example of a criminal case.
Q-3 Match the following columns
Q-4 Answer the following in detail:
1. What are civil and criminal cases?
2. Give two examples each of civil and criminal cases?

3. What is FIR?

4. Who is a public prosecutor?
Q-5 Answer the following questions:
1. What are the important functions of the Police?
2. What is the importance of FIR?
3. What is the role of a Public Prosecutor?
4. What are the Supreme Courts directions on the FIR?
Chapter-26   Social Justice and the Marginalised
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
1. The _____________Commission was concerned with the welfare of the Backward classes.

2. Weaker sections of the society who lives in tribal areas are called ________

3. The population of SCs according to 2001 census is ______

4. About 15% of the jobs under the government are reserved for the _______

5. Weaker sections of the society other than scheduled castes or scheduled tribes are called __________
Q-2 State True or False:

1. The Constitution of India makes untouchability an offence

2. The scheduled castes population in concentrated in Uttar Pradesh only.
3. 27% of the seats under the government has been reseNed for the scheduled tribes.
4. Articles 29 and 30 deals with safeguarding the rights of the minorities
5. According to 2001 census the percentage of scheduled tribes was 84.3%.
Q-3 Match the following:
Q-4 Answer the following questions in short:
1. What are the marginalized groups?
2. Who are scheduled tribes?
3. What was the population of scheduled castes according to 2001 census?
4. Define untouchability.
Q-5 Answer the following question in detail:
1. Explain the meaning of Social and Economic Justice?
2. Mention some of the Constitutional Provisions relating to SCs and STs?
3. What measures have been taken by the Government to promote the backward classes of the society.
4. What are the different forms of untouchability?
5. What steps have been taken by the government to eradicate untouchability?
Chapter-27   Economic Presence of the Government
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
1. _________serves many purposes at one and the same time.
2. Self employment was provided under the ___________yojna.
3._________ Scheme include Integrated Rural Development Programme.
4.______________ Plans are there for the economic development of the country.
Q-2 Match the following:
Q-3 State if the sentences are True or False:
1. Upto 2007 the Planning Commission has developed eleven five year plans.
2. Jawahar Gram Samridhi Vojna aimed at providing self-employment to the rural people.
3. Employment Assurance Scheme was launched in 2002-03.

4. Planning Commission was formed after the __________. 

Q-4 Answer the following:
1. Why was there a need to set up the Planning Commission?
2. Define Planning Commission?
3. What steps have been taken by the government to improve the condition of the Indian agriculture?
4. Mention some of the programmes started by the government to reduce poverty in our country?
5. What efforts have been made by the government to reduce unemployment?