Question bank
Chapter-1 World During Modern Age
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
-
(1)Historians have tried to divide history into ancient, _____ and modern period.
-
(2)The French Revolution took place in ______
-
(3)____________ century is regarded as the darkest period in the history of India.
-
(4)The invention of steam engine symbolizes the _______
-
(5)Because of the invention of the ____________, a lot of books began to be available.
Q-2 State it the sentences are True/False:
-
(1)For most of the 18th century, India continued 10 suffer and crumble under the British rule.
-
(2)Industrial Revolution started with the mechanisation of the textile industries.
-
(3)Harsh working conditions were not common before the Industrial Revolution.
-
(4)Rousseau was a great philosopher of France.
-
(5)Lenin led the French Revolution.
Q-3 Answer the following questions in short:
-
(1)How was the period of the 18th century in India?
-
(2)How did the Industrial Revolution start?
-
(3)What is nationalism?
-
(4)Who was Lenin?
-
(5)What is imperilism?
Q-4 Answer the following questions in long:
-
(1)Why did the French Revolution take place?
-
(2)What were the features of the Industrial Revolution ? Also state its impact on India.
-
(3)What do you understand by the term 'Modern Period'? What is the duration of this period in the history of India ?
-
(4)Throw light upon the various sources of modern Indian history.
-
(5)How have historical buildings and paintings proved useful as a source of history [.i.e. the history of Modern India]?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 During ___________ England was undergoing the Industrial Revolution.
-
(i)
The 18th century -
(ii)
) The 17th century -
(iii)
None of these -
(iv)
The 16th century
Q-2 Ordinary working people found increased opportunities for-
-
(i)
employment -
(ii)
migration -
(iii)
revolution -
(iv)
all of these
Q-3 The factory system was largely responsible for the rise of the modern-
-
(i)
cities -
(ii)
mall -
(iii)
village -
(iv)
all of these
Q-4 History has been divided into ______ parts.
-
(i)
one -
(ii)
two -
(iii)
three
Q-5 During which period did Babur, Humayun and Akbar rule over India?
-
(i)
medieval -
(ii)
modern -
(iii)
ancient
Q-6 The first socialist republic was let up in
-
(i)
the USSR -
(ii)
the U.K -
(iii)
the USA
Q-7 The U.N. was set up after
-
(i)
The second world war -
(ii)
The third world war -
(iii)
The first world war
Chapter-2 European Powers in India
Q-1 Fill in the blanks
-
(1)___________ discovered the sea route to India.
-
(2)The Europeans initially came to India for _______
-
(3)The conflict between the British and the French led to the___________ wars
-
(4)Madras (Chennai), Calcutta (Kolkata) and Bombay (Mumbai) were called _____ towns.
-
(5)The__________ war of succession triggered off the Carnatic war in India.
-
(6)The British factory at__________ was captured by Siraj-ud-Daulah.
-
(7)__________was an important banker of Bengal.
-
(8)The territories of_______,__________ and ____ were given to the British by Siraj-ud Daulah.
-
(9)Elizabeth I was the queen of ________
Q-2 Match the following:
Q-3 Say if the following sentences are True/False:
-
1. In 1660, London merchants formed the East India Company.
-
2. Vasco da Gama reached India in 1492.
-
3. The modern period in India began at the same time as in Europe.
-
4. The three Carnatic wars proved decisive for the victory of the English over their French rivals.
Q-4 Answer the following questions in short:
-
1. Who was Adam Smith ?
-
2. What was the basis of mercantilism?
-
3. Who were the first to trade with India?
-
4. Where were the Dutch present in India?
-
5. Who permitted various European trading stations in his territory?
Q-5 Answer the following questions in long:
-
1. Why was Siraj-ud-Daulah defeated in the Battle of Plassey?
-
2. What was the System of Dual Government?
-
3. Explain the battle of Buxar
-
4. Explain the victory that made Clive the virtual master of Bengal.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 In the battle of Plassey fought in 1757, Nawab Siraj-ud-Daulah of Bengal was defeated by the British forces. Who led the British forces in this battle?
-
(i)
Robert Clive -
(ii)
Lord Dalhousie -
(iii)
Lord Wellesley -
(iv)
Cornwallis
Q-2 Vasco da Gama reached Calicut on May 20,
-
(i)
1498 -
(ii)
1496 -
(iii)
1495 -
(iv)
1497
Q-3 The mercantile theory held that colonies exist for the _________of the mother country and are useless unless they help to achieve profit.
-
(i)
Economic benefit -
(ii)
Social benefit -
(iii)
All of these -
(iv)
Benefit
Chapter-3 Expansion of European Powers in India
Q-1 State if the following sentences are True/False:
-
1. The Doctrine of Lapse was formulated in 1834.
-
2. Warren Hastings became the Governor-General of India in 1772
-
3. Lord Wellesley is associated with the policy of Subsidiary Alliance.
-
4. In 1799, Tipu Sultan defeated the British.
-
5. Awadh was annexed under the Doctrine of Lapse.
Q-2 Answer the following questions in short:
-
1. What is the Doctrine of Lapse?
-
2. What is the Subsidiary Alliance?
-
3. What led to the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War? State its consequences.
-
4. When was the third Anglo-Maratha war, which proved a total disaster for the Marathas, fought?
-
5. Who was the British Governor-General of India when Punjab was annexed to the British Empire ?
Q-3 Answer the following questions in detail:
-
1. Explain the expansion of British powers in India.
-
2. What were the main features of the Subsidiary Alliance system introduced by Wellesley?
-
3. Explain the Anglo-Mararatha wars.
-
4. Explain the relations of the English with Mysore.
-
5. What were causes of the defeat of the Indian states?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The Anglo-Maratha wars were the three wars fought in India between the Maratha Empire and the
-
(i)
East India Company -
(ii)
Dutch East India Company -
(iii)
Company Chartered Company -
(iv)
French East India Company
Q-2 The Treaty of Seringapatam was signed after the defeat of Tipu Sultan in the Third Anglo Mysore war. Between whom were this treaty signed?
-
(i)
Tipu Sultan and Cornwallis -
(ii)
Tipu Sultan and Lord Minto -
(iii)
Tipu Sultan and Lord Canning -
(iv)
Tipu Sultan and lord Wellesley
Q-3 Which British Governor-General is associated with 'subsidiary alliance'?
-
(i)
Lord Wellesley -
(ii)
Lord Clive -
(iii)
Lord Cornwallis -
(iv)
Warren Hastings
Q-4 During the Afghan war which of the following was made the base of operations?
-
(i)
Amritsar -
(ii)
Sindh -
(iii)
Delhi -
(iv)
Kabul
Q-5 Which were the three states annexed to the British Empire under the Doctrine of Lapse?
-
(i)
The states of Jhansi, Nagpur and Satara -
(ii)
none of these -
(iii)
The states of Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata
-
(iv)
The states of Mumbai, Thane and Pune
Chapter-4 Colonial Army and Civil Administration
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
-
1. The Pitt's Act, 1784, was introduced by the British Prime Minister ...................... .
-
2. The Charter Act of ...................... centralised the British administration in India.
-
3. The Charter Act of ...................... marked the beginning of a Parliamentary system in India.
-
4. The system of open competition to the Indian Civil Service was introduced by the Act of .........................
-
5. Lord ...................... organised the police into a regular force.
Q-2 Write True or False:
-
1. The Charter Act of 1813 abolished the Company's monopoly of trade altogether.
-
2. The highest position an Indian could hold in the army was that of a Subedar.
-
3. The Supreme Court was established in Delhi.
-
4. The first Governor General of India was Lord Cornwallis.
-
5. The Civil Service was founded by Lord Dalhousie.
Q-3 Match the columns
Q-4 Answer the following questions in short:
-
1. Who was the first Governor General of India?
-
2. When and where was the Supreme Court of India established? Who was the first Chief Justice?
-
3. What were the major features of the Regulating Act, 1773?
-
4. Who organised the British Civil Services in India?
Q-5 Descriptive Questions:
-
1. What is known as the Regulating Act of 1773? State its two features.
-
2. What were the main provisions of the Pitt's India Act of 1784?
-
3. What did the Charter Acts of 1813 and 1833 provide?
-
4. State the impact of legal measures or Acts enacted upto 1856.
-
5. What changes did Lord Cornwallis introduce in the Indian police system?
Q-6 Answer the following questions briefly:
-
1. Critically evaluate the main provisions of the Regulating Act of 1773.
-
2. How were the drawbacks of the Regulating Act removed?
-
3. What was the need for the civil services and what steps did Lord Cornwallis take to reorganize the civil services?
-
4. List the important features of the Indian Judicial system under the East India Company. What was its major drawback?
-
5. Why were the local Indians dissatisfied with the local police?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 A Special Court to try The Company's officials was set up by
-
(i)
Lord Cornwallis
-
(ii)
Regulating Act
-
(iii)
Pitt's India Act
Q-2 An efficient Indian Civi l Service was organised by
-
(i)
Lord Cornwal lis
-
(ii)
Warren Hastings
-
(iii)
Robert Clive
Q-3 A Special Police department was first organised by
-
(i)
Cornwallis
-
(ii)
Warren Hastings
-
(iii)
Clive
Q-4 The Regulation Act fixed the number of the members to
-
(i)
Three
-
(ii)
Four
-
(iii)
Five
Chapter-5 Rural Life and Society
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
-
1. ...................... introduced the ljaradari System in Bengal.
-
2. The Ryotwari System was introduced in Karnataka and Mysuru at the instance of ....................
-
3. ....................... made the settlement permanent by a regulation in 1773.
-
4. Dinbhandu Mitra described the plight of the indigo cultivators in him play ....................... .
-
5. The Charter Act of ....................... granted the ownership right to indigo planters in India.
Q-2 True/False:
-
1. Warren Hastings introduced the ljardati system.
-
2. Lord Dalhousie introduced the Permanent Settlement.
-
3. Under the Mahalwari system, the government could not increase land revenue periodically.
-
4. Indigo, tea, coffee are called food crops.
-
5. The indigo cultivators were forced to grow this crop
Q-3 Match the names in column 'A' with the statements in column '8'.
Q-4 Answer the following questions in detail:
-
1. What was the economic structure of Indian villages before the advent of the British?
-
2. Who introduced the Permanent Settlement? Explain.
-
3. Discuss the effects of economic policies introduced by the British.
-
4. What led to the deterioration of agriculture in India?
-
5. What do you know about the commercialization of agriculture under the British?
-
6. Discuss the impact of the growth of commercial crops in India.
Q-5
Answer the following questions in short:
-
1. What were the three systems of land revenue adopted by the British?
-
2. What was Ryotwari System?
-
3. Explain the Mahalwari System.
-
4. Explain the ljaradari System.
-
5. Who were the indigo planters?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 One can imagine India's prosperity quite easily with the fact that it was known as ................ bird in the world.
-
(i)
Golden
-
(ii)
Silver
-
(iii)
Copper
-
(iv)
All of these
Q-2 The East India Company wanted raw material for its factories in England and required a lot of money for its expanding
-
(i)
Army
-
(ii)
Officials
-
(iii)
All of these
-
(iv)
Colonies
Q-3 The Permanent Settlement in Bengal was an agreement between the East India Company and-
-
(i)
Bengali landlords
-
(ii)
Dutch
-
(iii)
Bihari landlords
-
(iv)
All of these
Q-4 The play 'Neel Darpan' was published in
-
(i)
1860
-
(ii)
1900
-
(iii)
1757
-
(iv)
None
Q-5 The Ryotwari system is associated with:
-
(i)
Hastings
-
(ii)
Ashley Eden
-
(iii)
Cornwallis
-
(iv)
Thomas Munro
Q-6 Ryotwari system was extended to
-
(i)
Awadh area
-
(ii)
Mumbai area
-
(iii)
Kolkata area
-
(iv)
Karnataka and Mysuru
Q-7 Indigo-cultivators revolted against the cruel policy of British-
-
(i)
Indigo planters
-
(ii)
Indigo farmers
-
(iii)
Indigo agents
-
(iv)
All of these
Q-8 The Moplah peasants of Malabar (North Kerala) organized ........... revolts from 1836 to 1854.
-
(i)
22
-
(ii)
23
-
(iii)
24
-
(iv)
25
Chapter-6 Colonialism and Tribal Societies
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
-
1. The largest concentration of the tribes is in .................... .
-
2. The largest Adivasi population belongs to .................... .
-
3. A major role is played by .................... with tribal society.
-
4. The .................... occupied the hil ly region between the Jaintia and the Garo hills.
-
5. The First Burmese War was fought between ................... .
Q-2 Match the following:
Q-3 State if the sentences are True/False:
-
1. The United Nations and multilateral agencies generally consider the STs as 'indigenous peoples'.
-
2. Most of the tribals live in hilly and forest areas
-
3. Polygamy was prevalent among the tribal societies.
-
4. Birsa Munda organised the revolts in the Chhotanagpur Region.
Q-4 Answer the following questions in short:
-
1. What do you understand by the term 'tribe'?
-
2. Describe the habitation and economy of a tribe.
-
3. Name the principal tribes inhabiting the north-eastern region and the Chotanagpur region.
-
4. Who was Birsa Munda?
-
5. Where do the Santhals live ? What is their chief occupation?
-
6. Who led the first ever revolt against the landlords and the British?
Q-5 Answer the following questions in long:
-
1. What changes occurred in the tribal economies and societies in the nineteenth century?
-
2. Explain the revolts in the north-eastern region.
-
3. Explain the Santhal rebel lion.
-
4. Describe the role of Birsa Munda in organising his people against the Zamindars and the British rule.
-
5. Why did the tribals repeatedly rebel against the British in the north-eastern, eastern and central Indian belt?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The first tribal revolt in the Chotanagpur region was organised by
-
(i)
Kols
-
(ii)
Mundas
-
(iii)
Santhals
-
(iv)
Khasis
Q-2 Tirot Singh was the leader of the
-
(i)
Mundas
-
(ii)
Khasis
-
(iii)
Santhals
-
(iv)
Kukis
Q-3 Siddhu and Kanhu were the leaders of the
-
(i)
Mundas
-
(ii)
Santhals
-
(iii)
Khasis
-
(iv)
Khonds
Q-4 land dispossession and subjugation by the British and zamindar interests resulted in a number of adivasi-
-
(i)
Movements
-
(ii)
Rebellions
-
(iii)
All of these
-
(iv)
Revolts
Q-5 The Santhal insurrection broke out in-
-
(i)
1855
-
(ii)
1856
-
(iii)
1857
-
(iv)
1858
Chapter-7 The Indian Mutiny
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
-
1. Lord Dalhousie annexed the states of ____________, ______________and _______ on the basis of Doctrine of Lapse.
-
2. __________, the adopted son of Peshwa Baji Rao II, became one of the leaders of the Revolt.
-
3. Bahadur Shah II who lived in Delhi was declared ____________
-
4. General Bakht Khan was leader of the __________
-
5. The Revolt of 1857 started as a______ of the sepoys.
-
6. The important centres of the Revolt were _______, _______, ______, ______
Q-2 Match the following:
Q-3 Say if the sentences are True/False:
-
1. The Revolt of 1857 broke out in a sudden and spontaneous manner.
-
2. The British forced Indians to sell cheap and buy dear.
-
3. Artisans were patronized the new British rulers.
-
4. The Indian rulers were quite satisfied with Lord Dalhousie's Expansionist policies.
-
5. The Revolt of 1857 started as a mutiny of sepoys in the Company's army
-
6. The Revolt in Lucknow was led by Nana Saheb.
Q-4 Answer the following questions in short:
-
1. What is known as the greased cartridges incident?
-
2. How did the Revolt of 1857 spread to Delhi?
-
3. Who was Nana Sahib ? What did he do during the course of the Revolt of 1857?
-
4. Why is Rani Laxmibai of Jhansi most remembered for?
-
5. Which English officer was responsible for the outbreak of spark of revolt from Meerut?
-
6. How did the British humiliate the Mughals?
-
7. What was Mangal Pandey hanged for?
Q-5 Answer the following questions in long:
-
1. what were the chief causes of the Revolt of 1857?
-
2. Describe three causes of the failure of the Revolt of 1857.
-
3. What policy was adopted by the British after suppression of the Revolt?
-
4. Mention only three main results of the Revolt.
-
5. Give instances of resistance against the British rule in different parts of the country
Q-6
Identify the following people or places or events:
-
1. The sepoys of Awadh were infuriated by this event and joined the uprising.
-
2. This is the place where the first act of rebellion took place.
-
3. This is what the sepoys crossed to enter Delhi from Meerut.
-
4. He helped both Nana Sahib and Lakshmibai in their battles.
-
5. This event in Lucknow was one of the most memorable.
-
6. He was the actual leader of the rebels in Delhi.
-
7. These were the people who made the Revolt a popular one.
-
8. The Mughal dynasty ended with this event.
-
9. He was an 80-year-old leader in Bihar.
-
10. This was the place where Bahadur Shah's sons were executed.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The British rule brought drastic changes to the lives of ............... Indians.
-
(i)
poor
-
(ii)
rich
-
(iii)
none of these
-
(iv)
both of these
Q-2 Western education exposed Indians to the new thoughts of-
-
(i)
liberty
-
(ii)
equality
-
(iii)
none of these
-
(iv)
both of these
Q-3 After the Meerut mutiny the rebels moved to
-
(i)
Kanpur
-
(ii)
Lucknow
-
(iii)
Delhi
-
(iv)
None of these
Q-4 Who was declrared as the Emperor of India during the Revolt of 1857?
-
(i)
Bahadur Shah II
-
(ii)
Alam Shah I
-
(iii)
Alam Shah II
-
(iv)
Bahadur Shah I
Q-5 Begum Hazrat Mahal led the revolt at-
-
(i)
Lucknow
-
(ii)
Kanpur
-
(iii)
Arrah
-
(iv)
Dinapur
Chapter-8 Education and the British Rule
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
-
1. Reforms were first started in Bengal because ___________
-
2. The Muslims remained backward because ____________
-
3. The Theosophical Society was different from other reform movements because ________
-
4. Regional languages developed at this time because ________
-
5. Progress of science was hampered because of ________
-
6. Swami Dayanand Saraswati founded the_________ in _________
-
7. Swami Vivekananda was a disciple of __________
-
8. Temples were the focus of reforms in ________India.
-
9. __________won the Nobel Prize for Literature in 1913.
Q-2 Match the following:
Q-3 Write True or False for each statement:
-
1. The practice of 'sati' was abolished in 1829, largely due to the efforts of Raja Ram Mohan Roy.
-
2. The Hindu Balika Vidyalaya was opened by lshwar Chandra Vidyasagar.
-
3. The reform movements first started in Bengal and then spread to other parts of India
-
4. Ramabai Ranade was a reformer of northern India.
Q-4 Answer the following questions in short:
-
1. Name four evils that existed in the Indian society.
-
2. Name two Parsi reformers and what was their aim.
-
3. What steps were taken to encourage the progress of science?
Q-5 Answer the following questions in long
-
1. What were Raja Ram Mohan Roy's contributions to education?
-
2. List the different steps taken by the British government for the spread of education.
-
3. There were some changes in the sphere of literature at this time. What were they?
-
4. What role did the press play? Name some important newspapers of those days
-
5. What was the contribution of Singh Sabha Movement to the education?
-
6. What did lshwar Chandra Vidyasagar do to enhance the education in Indian society?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Who was the founder of Brahmo Samaj?
-
(i)
Keshav Chandra Sen
-
(ii)
Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
-
(iii)
Dwarka Nath Tagore
-
(iv)
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
Q-2 The Aligarh Muslim University was founded by
-
(i)
Gopal Krishna Gokhale
-
(ii)
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
-
(iii)
Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
-
(iv)
Swami Dayanand
Q-3 Who was the most important socio-religious reformer of the Muslims in the 19th century?
-
(i)
Sir Syed Ahmad Khan
-
(ii)
Muhammad Iqbal
-
(iii)
Maqsud Ali
-
(iv)
Mohd Ali Jinnah
Chapter-9 Women and Reform Movements in India
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
-
1. The Brahmo Sabha was founded in .................... .
-
2. The first women's uplift movement in Maharashtra was led by .................... .
-
3. ................... abolished the sati practice by law.
-
4. The Deccan Society was founded in .................... .
-
5. The Widow Remarriage Act was passed in .................... .
Q-2 Establish a link between Column A and Column B:
Q-3 State if the sentences are True/False:
-
1. The sati practice was more prevalent in Bengal.
-
2. Savitribai was the first woman teacher in Maharashtra.
-
3. Sati was banned by Raja Ram Mohan Roy.
-
4. Mahadev Govind Ranade was associated with the Prarthana Samaj.
-
5. Bethune School was started by lshwar Chandra Vidhyasagar.
-
6. Most notable educator and legislator, Gopal Krishna Gokhale was inspired by Ranade.
Q-4 Answer the following questions in short:
-
1. What do you understand by the reform?
-
2. Who was Raja Ram Mohan Roy? What is his contribution for the cause of the women?
-
3. Name any four major social ills women suffered during the nineteenth century
-
4. Who was lshwar Chandra Vildyasagar? What did he do for women's uplift?
-
5. Who was Swami Dayanand? How did he contribute for women's uplift?
-
6. Who was the most prominent Muslim reformer? What is his main contribution?
-
7. Who was Mahadev Govind Ranade?
Q-5 Answer the following questions in long:
-
1. Explain the reasons, why were the reformers focused on the women's conditions?
-
2. What was the impact of various reforms in the sphere of legislation?
-
3. Describe the contribution of Bengal to the upliftment of women.
-
4. Describe the contribution of Maharashtra in the women's uplift.
-
5. Evaluate the status of women during the British rule.
-
6. Why was the need for social reforms for women felt?
-
7. Evaluate the coming of the British in India as a boost to the works of the Indian reformers.
-
8. What was the impact of literature on social reforms ?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 'Lokhitavadi' title was given to :
-
(i)
Keshab Chandra Sen
-
(ii)
Gopal Hari Deshmukh
-
(iii)
Govind Ranade
Q-2 The custom of sari was banned by:
-
(i)
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
-
(ii)
Lord William Bentinck
-
(iii)
Lord Macaulay
Q-3 The Widow Remarriage Act was brought about by the untiring efforts of:
-
(i)
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
-
(ii)
lshwar Chandra Vidhyasagar
-
(iii)
Keshab Chandra Sen
Q-4 lshwar Chandra Vidyasagar championed female education and led the campaign for-
-
(i)
Remarriage
-
(ii)
Child education
-
(iii)
None of these
-
(iv)
Widow remarriage
Q-5 Reform movements showed the guiding light for ................. to be enacted.
-
(i)
Laws
-
(ii)
Rules
-
(iii)
Traditions
-
(iv)
All of these
Chapter-10 Colonialism and Urban Change
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
-
1. Lord .................... set up the Public Works Department
-
2. . ................... was the first port town occupied by the Portuguese
-
3. The British established themselves at .................... in 1639.
-
4. In __________Madras uses raised to the rank of Presidency
-
S. Delhi was made the capital of India in .................... .
Q-2 Match the columns:
Q-3 Write True or False:
-
1. The British introduced the railways in India in 1858.
-
2. The British first established themselves in Bombay
-
3. Pondicherry was established by the French.
-
4. The British shifted the capital from Calcutta to Delhi in 1911 .
-
5. The Civil Lines contained offices and residences of British officials.
Q-4 Answer the following questions in short:
-
1. Who was the architect of New Delhi?
-
2. Name some of the major British monuments in Delhi.
-
3. Why were the Civil lines and Cantonments built?
-
4. Who set up a separate Public Works Department during the British rule?
-
5. Name the city with the highest population of India in 1800s?
-
6. How did the introduction of railways help urbanization?
-
7. Why did Calcutta gain importance under the British?
-
8. How did acquisition of Bombay benefit the British in India?
-
9. Name some places in Madras which deserve special mention.
Q-5 Answer the following questions in long:
-
1. What led to the decline of cities in India during the 19th century?
-
2. Explain the role of railways in the growth of metropolitan towns and decline of Pre-British towns in India.
-
3. Why were the municipalities established in big cities during the British rule?
-
4. Write a note on the British influence on urbanization in India.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Railways were introduced in India in
-
(i)
1857
-
(ii)
1858
-
(iii)
1853
-
(iv)
1852
Q-2 Calcuta was the capital of India till
-
(i)
1800
-
(ii)
1872
-
(iii)
1911
-
(iv)
1902
Q-3 Which city was built by a Mughal Emperor?
-
(i)
Firozabad
-
(ii)
Siri
-
(iii)
Shahjahanabad
-
(iv)
lndraprastha
Q-4 Waltair emerged as a
-
(i)
Administrative town
-
(ii)
Commercial town
-
(iii)
Port town
-
(iv)
Railway town
Chapter-11 Reforming the Caste System
Q-1
Match the Columns:
Q-2 Fill in the blanks:
-
1. The caste system was the main cause of .................... .
-
2. The .................... was against the feeling of world brotherhood.
-
3. ................... founded the Satya Shodhak Samaj.
-
4. ................... did his work in Kerala.
-
5. Mahatma Gandhi founded the .................... Sangh.
Q-3 Write True or False against each statement:
-
1. The caste system was a check on personal advancement.
-
2. Jyotiba Phule was born in 1805 in Maharashtra.
-
3. Veeresalingam worked for the upliftment of the Ezhavas.
-
4. Dr Bhim Rao Ambedker founded the Theosophical Society.
-
5. Sri Narayan Guru founded the Rajamundri Association.
-
6. Ranked below the two top categories were the Vaishyas.
-
7. Jyotirao, along with his followers, formed the Shodhak Samaj.
-
8. Dr B.R. Ambedkar's helped to establish the 'Bahishkrit Hitkarini Sabha'.
Q-4 Answer the following questions in brief:
-
1 . What do you understand by caste system?
-
2. Who was Jyotiba Phule ? What was his contribution in the field of caste reforms?
-
3. Describe the work of Veeresalingam for caste reforms.
-
4. Who was Dr Bhim Rao Ambedkar?
-
5. Who was Sri Narayan Guru ? Why is he remembered?
-
6. Where did Narayana Guru belong to?
-
7. What was the percentage of the population of "untouchables" in India in 1930s?
Q-5 Answer the following questions in long:
-
1. How did untouchability prove harmful for the Hindu society?
-
2. Why did most of the reformers focus on the caste system?
-
3. What did Gandhi ji do for the cause of the depressed classes?
-
4. Evaluate the work of Dr B.R. Ambedkar for the uplift of the depressed classes.
-
5. Define caste system along with its negative aspects.
-
6. Who gave the term Harijan? Explain his reason of coining this term.
Q-6 Write short notes on the following:
-
1. Satyasodhak Movement
-
2. Self-Respect Movement
-
3. Ezhava Movement
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 ___________ fought to end caste discrimination in Maharashtra.
-
(i)
Kabir
-
(ii)
Jyotirao Govindrao Phule
-
(iii)
Mughal
-
(iv)
Shri Nanak Guru
Q-2 All India Harijan Sevak Sangh was founded by
-
(i)
Mahatma Gandhi
-
(ii)
Dr B.R. Ambedkar
-
(iii)
None of these
-
(iv)
Shri Nanak Guru
Q-3 ..................... believe that there is no place for the caste system in Hinduism.
-
(i)
Swami Vivekananda
-
(ii)
Swami Ramananda
-
(iii)
Jyotiba Phule
-
(iv)
None of these
Q-4 A threefold division of society into priests, warriors and commoners was a part of the .............. heritage.
-
(i)
British
-
(ii)
Mughal
-
(iii)
Turk
-
(iv)
Aryan
Chapter-12 Changes in the Arts: Literature, Painting and Architecture
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
-
1. Geetanjali was written by ________
-
2. New literary forms like centuries__________. and __________became popular in the 19th and 20th.
-
3. Subramania Bharti was a _______ writer.
-
4. Prince of Wales Museum is situated in ___________
-
5. The Victoria Terminus is also known as _________
Q-2 True or False:
-
1. Munshi Premchand was the author of Godan.
-
2. Sharat Chandra Chatterjee was a Bengali writer
-
3. Qazi Nazrul Islam was a Bengali poet.
-
4. Gateway of India is situated in Delhi
-
5. Amrita Shergil was a genius in oil painting and academic realism.
Q-3 Answer the following questions in short:
-
1. Mention the famous civic monuments of the British period in Mumbai.
-
2. Mention the famous buildings of the British period in Chennai.
-
3. What do you know about Udai Shankar?
-
4. What do you know about Rabindranath Tagore?
-
5. What are performing arts?
-
6. Mention some fiction writers and their famous works.
Q-4
Answer the following questions in detail:
-
1. Write an account of the development of painting in India during the British rule
-
2. Describe the progress of performing arts in Indian in the twentieth century.
-
3. Describe the various styles of architecture of the British monuments in India.
-
4. Write a note on the progress made in the field of fiction during the twentieth century.
-
5. Briefly describe the changes brought in modern Indian literature in the nineteenth and early twentieth centuries.
Q-5
Match the Columns:
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Rabindranath Tagore won Nobel Prize for his
-
(i)
Geetanjali
-
(ii)
Gora
-
(iii)
Galpa Guchcha
-
(iv)
Chare Baire
Q-2 'Rangbhoomi' is a novel written by
-
(i)
Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
-
(ii)
Munshi Prem Chand
-
(iii)
Vibhuti Bhushan
-
(iv)
Bhartendu Harish Chandra
Q-3 Abanindranath Tagore is known for his
-
(i)
Paintings
-
(ii)
Poetry
-
(iii)
Sculpture
-
(iv)
Music
Q-4 The Umaid Bhavan in Rajasthan is at
-
(i)
Gwalior
-
(ii)
Jodhpur
-
(iii)
Jaipur
-
(iv)
Bikaner
Chapter-13 Rise of Indian Nationalism
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
-
1. Modern Indian nationalism arose to meet the challenges of __________
-
2. Exploitation of India by the British was direct and harsh before 1857; after 1857 it became __________ and ____________
-
3. The ________rebellion was an armed rebel lion of the Sikhs against the British policy of divide and rule.
-
4. The English language acted as a ________ language among the educated Indians.
-
5. Western scholars like and researched the Indian past ___________ and rediscovered its rich heritage.
-
6. 'Vande Mataram ' was written by ___________
-
7. The Indian National Congress was established in the year and its first __________ session was held in ______
-
8. The most important leaders of the Moderates were __________ and _________
-
9. The Moderates spread___________ among the people.
Q-2 Match the following columns:
Q-3 State whether the following are true or false:
-
1. The Revolt of India had failed to rid India of foreign rule.
-
2. Western education and modern ideas could not bring the Indians together.
-
3. Racial arrogance and racial discriminations by the British caused great resentment among Indian intellectuals.
-
4. The Moderates believed in the justice and fair play of the British.
-
5. The Moderates presented their grievances to the British in the form of protests and strikes.
-
6. The Swadeshi and Boycott Movement started after the division of Bengal.
-
7. Separate electorates for the Muslims were introduced by the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms.
-
8. The Lucknow Pact was between the Moderates and the Extremists.
Q-4 Answer the following questions in short:
-
1. What was Swadeshi and Boycott Movement?
-
2. What led to the rise of extremists in the Congress?
-
3. Define nationalism.
-
4. In what way did the Revolt of 1857 impact the rise of nationalism in India?
-
5. When was the Indian National Congress established? Mention the main aims of the Congress.
Q-5 Answer the following questions in long:
-
1. What was the main difference between the Moderates and the Extremists?
-
2. Give the reasons given by the British for dividing Bengal. What was the real reason behind this move?
-
3. Discuss the role played by the British in the formation of the Muslim League.
-
4. What methods did the revolutionaries adopt to liberate India from British rule? What were the weaknesses of their movement?
-
5. What role did A.O. Hume play in the establishment of the Indian National Congress?
Chapter-14 Struggle for Indian Freedom 1919-1947
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
-
(1)Mahatma Gandhi dominated the Indian politics from 1919 to ..................... (1975/1947)
-
(2)Gandhiji used Satyagraha and ................... (ahimsa/violence) against the British.
-
(3)The Montague-Chelmsford Reform was also cal led the Government of ................... (India/Britain) Act of 1919.
-
(4)General ................... (Dyer/Montague) ordered fire at the crowd in Jallianwala Bagh on April 13,1919.
-
(5)................. (khadi/charkha) became the symbol of freedom.
Q-2 Match the Columns:
Q-3 Say if the sentences are True/False:
-
1. The Government of India Act of 1919 is also known as the Minto reform
-
2. The Non-Cooperation Movement was suspended by Gandhiji following the outbreak of violence at Chauri-Chaura in U.P.
-
3. In July 1947, the British Parliament passed the India Independence Act which provided for the setting up of two independent dominions.
Q-4 Answer the following questions in brief:
-
1. When was the Azad Hind Fauj formed? Who were associated with its formation?
-
2. Why was the Cabinet Mission called so ? Who were its members?
-
3. Who were the Swarajists ? What was their purpose?
-
4. When did Gandhiji enter the National Movement?
-
5. When and where was the demand for Poorna Swaraj raised?
Q-5 Answer the following questions in detail:
-
1. Point out the significant development that took place between year 1928 and 1930.
-
2. When was the Civil Disobedience Movement launched? Mention other programmes involved with the movement.
-
3. What were the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1935?
-
4. Describe the contribution of Mahatma Gandhi in India's struggle for Freedom.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Where did the Gandhiji break the Salt law?
-
(i)
Sabarmati Ashram
-
(ii)
Bardoli
-
(iii)
Dandi
-
(iv)
Kheda
Q-2 Where did Gandhiji first used Satyagraha?
-
(i)
Kheda
-
(ii)
Ahmedabad
-
(iii)
South Africa
-
(iv)
Champaran
Q-3 Who organised the Indian National Army?
-
(i)
Subhash Chandra Bose
-
(ii)
Captain Mohan Singh
-
(iii)
None of these
-
(iv)
Ras Bihar Bose
Q-4 The first Governor General of India was
-
(i)
Lord Mountbatten
-
(ii)
Chakravarti Rajgopalachari
-
(iii)
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
-
(iv)
None of these
Chapter-15 Resources: Types & Development
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
-
1. ___________ resources are only found in certain places
-
2. Any substance become resource only, when it has ________ and ________ in human life.
-
3. _________soil found in northern plains of India
-
4. Most of the metallic minerals are _________
Q-2 State 'True' or 'False'
-
1. Resources are a function of human activities.
-
2. Technology is available to reproduce non-renewable resources, like iron ore, manganese, etc.
-
3. Non-renewable resources are found in unlimited quantity.
-
4. Ubiquitous resources are found in certain places only.
-
5. Education and health helps in improving human resources.
-
6. Time and technology are two important factors which convert a substance into a resource.
Q-3 Give answer in short:
-
1. Define resources.
-
2. What is the importance of Time and Technology in the development of resources?
-
3. Distinguish between biotic and abiotic resources.
-
4. Define actual resources.
-
5. What do you mean by localized resources?
-
6. Which two factors help in the development of human resources?
-
7. What are human made resources?
-
8. Define sustainable development.
-
9. What do you mean by potential resources?
-
10. Give any two examples of renewable resources.
Q-4 Give answer in detail:
-
1. Differentiate between renewable and non-renewable resources.
-
2. Classify the resources on the basis of distribution.
-
3. Why human resource is important in the development of natural resources?
-
4. What do you mean by the conservation of resources?
-
5. What is the importance of resources in country's economy?
-
6. Suggest some measures to save our mother earth.
Q-5
Match the following Columns:
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Which of the following are the examples of ubiquitous resources?
-
(i)
Coal
-
(ii)
Petroleum
-
(iii)
All the above
-
(iv)
Air
Q-2 Which of the following is an abiotic resource?
-
(i)
Plants
-
(ii)
Minerals
-
(iii)
Human beings
-
(iv)
Animals
Q-3 Which of the following is related with development of a substance into a resource?
-
(i)
Utility
-
(ii)
Value
-
(iii)
Technology
-
(iv)
All the above
Q-4 Which is an example of renewable resource?
-
(i)
Gold
-
(ii)
Iron ore
-
(iii)
Aluminum
-
(iv)
Water
Q-5 Which of the following factors affect the distribution of natural resources?
-
(i)
Terrain
-
(ii)
Climate
-
(iii)
Attitude
-
(iv)
All of the above
Chapter-16 Natural Resources: Land and Soil
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
-
1. A vertical cross section of horizons in soil is known as ________
-
2. Soil_________ and depletion are the major threats to soil as a resource.
-
3. Colour, texture, chemical properties and mineral content in soil depend upon ________
-
4.___________ occurs on steep slopes.
-
5. _______are effective in coastal and dry regions.
Q-2 State 'True' or 'False
-
1. Crop rotation is necessary to maintain soil fertility.
-
2. When continuous production is taken from a soil, it increases its fertility.
-
3. About 70% part of the world is inhabited.
-
4. Climate is the most important factor which affects the distribution of soil.
-
5. The amount of total land available to us is extremely limited.
Q-3 Match the Columns.
Q-4 Give answer in short:
-
1. Why is land considered as very important resource?
-
2. Which factors are responsible for the distribution of population?
-
3. Define community land.
-
4. What do you mean by land use?
-
5. Mention the human activities which are responsible for land degradation.
-
6. Suggest any two ways to reduce the problem of land degradation.
-
7. What is soil?
-
8. What are the factors responsible for soil formation?
-
9. Name two layers of soil.
-
10. What is soil profile?
-
11. What do you mean by soil erosion?
-
12. Mention the methods to check soil erosion in short.
-
13. What do you mean by soil degradation?
Q-5 Give answer in detail.
-
1. Differentiate between private land and community land.
-
2. Discuss the land utilization pattern of India.
-
3. Discuss land conservation methods in detail.
-
4. Differentiate between top soil and subsoil.
-
5. What do you mean by soil fertility? How can it be maintained?
-
6. Differentiate between gully erosion and sheet erosion.
-
7. Discuss any four soil conservation methods in detail.
-
8. Discuss the factors of formation of soil in detail.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The percent of uninherited land on the earth is
-
(i)
60%
-
(ii)
30%
-
(iii)
70%
-
(iv)
50%
Q-2 Which of the following factors do not affect the distribution of population
-
(i)
Soil
-
(ii)
Availability of minerals
-
(iii)
Types of crops.
-
(iv)
Climate
Q-3 What is the total geographical area of India?
-
(i)
3.27 million sq. km
-
(ii)
3.28 million sq. km
-
(iii)
3.32 million sq. km
-
(iv)
3.38 million sq. km
Q-4 Which of the following factors are responsible for land degradation?
-
(i)
Overgrazing
-
(ii)
Mining
-
(iii)
All the above
-
(iv)
Deforestation
Q-5 Which of the following constituent substances are found in soil?
-
(i)
Silica
-
(ii)
Clay
-
(iii)
Humus
-
(iv)
All the above
Chapter-17 Natural Resources : Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
-
1. __________biosphere reserve is located in Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
-
2.____________forests are found in the areas where there is abundant supply of heat and rain available
-
3. Most of the water of the earth is found in the _________
-
4. ___________ irrigation is very useful in dry regions.
-
5. Coak, Oak, Olive are important trees found in the ____ forests.
Q-2 State 'True' or 'False':
-
1. Deciduous forests do not shed their leaves
-
2. Fresh water is found in the oceans
-
3. Mahogany, ebony, rosewood, etc. are grown in evergreen forests.
-
4. Coniferous forests are only found in the northern hemisphere.
-
5. Oceans cover two-thirds of the earth.
Q-3 Match the Columns:
Q-4 Give answer in short:
-
1. What do you mean by multi-purpose projects?
-
2. Give the sources of fresh water.
-
3. Name the countries which are facing water scarcity.
-
4. Give any two uses of water.
-
5. Define National Parks
-
6. What do you mean by a biosphere reserve?
-
7. Give any two characteristics of Mediterranean forests.
-
8. Give any two productive roles of forests.
-
9. Give any two methods of water conservation.
-
10. Give any two varieties of trees found in the deciduous forests
Q-5 Give answer in detail:
-
1. Discuss the protective and productive role of forests.
-
2. Discuss the importance of wildlife.
-
3. How can we conserve water resources? Explain.
-
4. Differentiate between evergreen forests and deciduous forests.
-
5. Give description about the water resources of India.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The earth is also called
-
(i)
red planet
-
(ii)
water planet
-
(iii)
green planet
-
(iv)
brightest planet
Q-2 The percent of fresh water available for human use
-
(i)
4% -
(ii)
1% -
(iii)
3%
-
(iv)
5%
Q-3 The total renewable water resources of India are
-
(i)
1897 sq km
-
(ii)
1895 sq km
-
(iii)
1893 sq km
-
(iv)
1894 sq km
Q-4 Where is 'Sunderban' biosphere reserve located?
-
(i)
Uttarakhand
-
(ii)
West Bengal
-
(iii)
Tamil Nadu
-
(iv)
Kerala
Q-5 Which of the following animal is on the verge of extinction
-
(i)
Lion
-
(ii)
Black Buck
-
(iii)
AlI of the above
-
(iv)
Tiger
Chapter-18 Agriculture
Q-1 Fill in the blanks
-
1. _____________is an equatorial crop.
-
2.___________ is well grown in flood plains where soils are renewed every year.
-
3. Jowar, Bajra and ragi are the important _________
-
4. Tea and coffee are included in ____________crops
-
5.________ agriculture is also known as slash and burn agriculture.
Q-2 State 'True' or 'False
-
1. In mixed farming, mining and agriculture are done over a single piece of land.
-
2. Maize is used both as food and fodder
-
3. Rearing of silkworm for the production of silk fibre is known as sericulture
-
4. Rice is the major food crop of the world.
-
5. In subsistence farming, crops are grown for sale purposes.
Q-3 Match the Columns:
Q-4 Give answer in short:
-
1. What do you mean by agriculture?
-
2. Define sericulture.
-
3. Give the factors which affect the agriculture.
-
4. Give the main types of agriculture
-
5. Give any two conditions ideal for the growth of millets.
-
6. What do you mean by plantation agriculture?
-
7. What do you mean by mixed farming?
-
8. Define subsistence agriculture.
-
9. Mention the important wheat producing areas.
-
10. What kind of soil is required for the growth of maize?
-
11 . Mention important plantation crops.
-
12. Which crop is called "Golden Fibre"?
Q-5 Give answer in detail:
-
1. What do you mean by a farm system?
-
2. Differentiate between subsistence farming and commercial farming
-
3. Differentiate between mixed farming and plantation farming.
-
4. Compare an Indian farm with a farm found in the USA.
-
5. Discuss the conditions required for the growth of rice.
-
6. Give a brief description about a tea plantation.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Which of the following activity is considered as primary activity?
-
(i)
Communication
-
(ii)
Banking
-
(iii)
Agriculture
-
(iv)
Transport
Q-2 Which of the following crops grown in subsistence agriculture?
-
(i)
Rubber
-
(ii)
Potato
-
(iii)
Tea
-
(iv)
Sugarcane
Q-3 Which of the following factor plays an important role in the development of agriculture?
-
(i)
Topography
-
(ii)
Climate
-
(iii)
Soil
-
(iv)
All the above
Q-4 Which is the leading producer of coffee in the world?
-
(i)
Brazil
-
(ii)
South Africa
-
(iii)
China
-
(iv)
India
Q-5 Which of the following is a horticulture crop?
-
(i)
Mango
-
(ii)
Onion
-
(iii)
AlI the above
-
(iv)
Cabbage
Chapter-19 Manufacturing Industries
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
-
1. Cotton textile industry is an___________ industry of India.
-
2.___________ is also called as the Manchester of India.
-
3. Silicon Valley is famous for ________
-
4.___________is well known textile centre of Japan.
-
5. _____________climate is suitable for spinning and weaving.
Q-2 State if the sentences are 'True' or 'False'
-
1. Textile mills in Osaka are completely dependent upon imported raw material.
-
2. Karnataka Government was the last to announce IT Policy in Indian in 1992.
-
3. Large scale industries invest huge amount of money as well as employed large number of people
-
4. Steel is the output of iron and steel industry.
-
5. Cotton textile industry is the backbone of modern industry.
Q-3 Match the following:
Q-4 Answer the following questions in short:
-
1. List the factors affecting industrial location.
-
2. Name the two important centres of cotton textiles in the world.
-
3. Differentiate between public sector and private sector industries by giving suitable examples
-
4. Define the word 'Industry'.
-
5. Give two uses of steel.
-
6. What do you mean by an industrial region?
-
7. Name the important natural fibres found in India.
-
8. Name any two synthetic fibres.
-
9. Where and when was the first iron and steel plant established?
-
10. Mention any two features of cotton textile industry.
Q-5 Answer the following questions in detail:
-
1. Trace the development of cotton textile industries.
-
2. Differentiate between agro-based industry and mineral-based industry.
-
3. Discuss the factors which were responsible for the ideal location of Tata Iron and Steel Industry in Jamshedpur
-
4. Why is Ahmedabad considered as the "Manchester of India'.
-
5. Why did rapid growth of cotton textile industry take place in Mumbai after 1854?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Which of the following is an example of industries?
-
(i)
Coal mining
-
(ii)
Manufacturing of leather goods
-
(iii)
All the above
-
(iv)
Weaving and spinning
Q-2 Which of the following industries is an example of agro-based industry?
-
(i)
Automobile
-
(ii)
Cotton textile
-
(iii)
Watch making
-
(iv)
Aluminum smelting
Q-3 Which of the following industry comes under private sector?
-
(i)
Hero-Honda
-
(ii)
Steel Authority of India Ltd.
-
(iii)
Amul
-
(iv)
Sugar Mill
Q-4 Where was the first successful modern textile mill set up?
-
(i)
Kolkata
-
(ii)
Chennai
-
(iii)
Mumbai
-
(iv)
Kanpur
Q-5 When was the Tata Iron and Steel Company set up?
-
(i)
1907
-
(ii)
1909
-
(iii)
1905
-
(iv)
1908
Chapter-20 Human Resources
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
-
1. The _____________is most commonly expressed as the number of fem ales per 1000 males
-
2. The USA, Australia, Canada have gained population due to _________
-
3. The average population density of the world is __________persons/ km Square .
Q-2 State if the sentences are 'True' or 'False'
-
1. Migration is a major factor of population.
-
2. Increase in food productivity and better food supply is responsible for the increase in population.
-
3. Industrial areas provide employment opportunities to large population.
-
4. Rapid growth of population is the major problem in developed countries.
-
5. A country is said to have an optimum population when the number of people is in balance with the available resources.
Q-3 Answer the following question in short:
-
1. What do you mean by human resources?
-
2. What do you mean by population density? What is the population density of India?
-
3. Which factors affect the distribution of population?
-
4. Name any two sparsely populated areas.
-
5. Name any two densely populated areas.
-
6. What do you mean by population change?
-
7. Name the two types of migration.
-
8. What do you mean by population composition ?
-
9. Define sex ratio.
-
10. What do you mean by literacy?
-
11. What do you understand by optimum population?
-
12. What is the impact of age group on population?
Q-4 Answer the following question in detail:
-
1. Define the following demographic terms. i. Birth rate ii. Death rate iii. Migration
-
2. Discuss the factors responsible for distribution of population in the world.
-
3. What is the importance of population pyramid? Justify your answer with suitable examples.
-
4. What are the future prospects for the distribution of population in the world?
-
5. Discuss the population problems related with developing countries.
-
6. What problems are faced by in developed countries in respect of population?
-
7. Discuss the pattern of population growth in the world.
Q-5 Match the following columns:
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Which of the fol lowing countries is the second largest populated country o f the world?
-
(i)
India
-
(ii)
China
-
(iii)
Japan
-
(iv)
Pakistan
Q-2 Western and Central Europe is densely populated due to the availability of
-
(i)
water
-
(ii)
soil
-
(iii)
none of the above
-
(iv)
minerals
Q-3 Thar desert is sparsely populated due to
-
(i)
climate
-
(ii)
sand
-
(iii)
mountains
-
(iv)
thorny bushes
Q-4 Which of the following is the major cause of population growth?
-
(i)
birth rate
-
(ii)
death rate
-
(iii)
migration
-
(iv)
natural growth rate
Q-5 Which of the following country is the example of population change due to emigration
-
(i)
Sudan -
(ii)
USA -
(iii)
Canada -
(iv)
Australia
Chapter-21 The Indian Constitution
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
-
1. _________was the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly.
-
2.___________ was the first Prime Minister of the Republic of India.
-
3.__________ was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee.
-
4. A nation is ______________when it is free into its internal and external matters.
-
5. Dissent is an important feature of _________
Q-2 Write True or False against each statement:
-
1. Constitution is the set of rules which helps the government of a country to run.
-
2. January 26 is celebrated as the Independence Day.
-
3. Laws are not necessary for the smooth running of the society.
-
4. Salt Satyagraha was started by Gandhiji.
-
5. Liberty means freedom of everything, i.e., good or bad.
Q-3 Answer the following questions in brief:
-
1. What is a constitution?
-
2. What is contained in the constitution of a country?
-
3. Why do we need laws?
-
4. Who was the chairperson of the Drafting Committee?
-
5. What is socialism?
Q-4 Answer the following questions in detail
-
1. What do you mean by the terms Articles and Schedules?
-
2. What is the Preamble of our country and what is its importance?
-
3. What is the importance of Constitution?
-
4. What was the salt Law? Why did Gandhi ji break it?
-
5. Explain the significance of Dandi March.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 A state where all religions receive due respect is called
-
(i)
feudatistic -
(ii)
secular
Q-2 A nation which has an elected person as its head is called a
-
(i)
republic -
(ii)
monarchy
Q-3 Fraternity means
-
(i)
brotherhood -
(ii)
liberty
Q-4 Indian Constitution came into force on
-
(i)
15 August 1947 -
(ii)
26 January 1 950
Chapter-22 Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
-
1. Rights and _______ are equally important.
-
2. It is our ___________ to defend the country.
-
3. Right to assemble____________ and without arms is guaranteed to Indian citizens.
-
4. Right to move the court is granted by _______
Q-2 Write the correct Fundamental Rights:
-
1. No one can be prevented four using a public park.
-
2. Every child has the right to seek admission to school.
-
3. All citizens have freedom of religious belief.
-
4. People can be made to work only against wages.
Q-3 Answer the following:
-
1. What is meant by fundamental rights?
-
2. list the fundamental rights under the Constitution.
-
3. Explain briefly what you understand by 'Right to Constitutional Remedies'.
-
4. Discuss the duties of the Indian citizens.
-
5. Explain the relationship between Fundamental Rights and human rights.
Q-4 Match the columns:
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The minority ____ open their own educational institutions.
-
(i)
Can -
(ii)
Cannot
Q-2 Right to reside in any part of the country is a part of the
-
(i)
Right to Equality -
(ii)
Right to freedom
Q-3 Right to move to the Supreme Court is granted by
-
(i)
Right to Equality -
(ii)
Right to constitutional remedies.
Q-4 India is a __________
-
(i)
Secular State -
(ii)
Religions State
Chapter-23 Parliamentary Government
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
-
1. A person seeking election to the Rajya Sabha should have acquired ___ years of age
-
2.__________ is more powerful than the Rajya Sabha.
-
3. The ___________ plays an important role in the election of the President and the Vice President.
-
4. The members of the ______________are directly elected by the people.
-
5. The __________is dissolved after every five years.
Q-2 Write true or false:
-
1. A Money Bill can be initated in the Rajya Sabha.
-
2. The normal life of the Lok Sabha is six years.
-
3. Our Parliament consists of the President, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
-
4. The Rajya Sabha is a permanent house.
-
5. The President can nominate 12 members in the Lok Sabha.
Q-3 Answer the following questions in short :
-
1. How are the members of the Lok Sabha elected?
-
2. What are the qualifications for a person to be elected as a member of the Lok Sabha?
-
3. What are the functions of the India Parliament?
-
4. What is Budget session?
-
5. How does a bill become a law?
-
6. What is a Money Bill?
Q-4 Answer the following questions in long:
-
1. What are the main characteristics of the Parliamentary form of government?
-
2. Why did India have parliamentary form of government?
-
3. Why is Lok Sabha known as the house of the people?
-
4. What is the meaning of constituency? What do you mean by 'Reserved Constituency'?
-
5. Give reasons why some members of the family may not have the right to vote.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The session of the Parliament, in which the Budget is presented, discussed and passed is called a
-
(i)
Budget Sesson,
-
(ii)
Parliament session
Q-2 The President can nominate members in the Lok Sabha.
-
(i)
2 -
(ii)
3 -
(iii)
4
Q-3 A person should have acquired the age of to become a member of the Lok Sabha.
-
(i)
25 -
(ii)
18 -
(iii)
21
Q-4 The Rajya Sabha is a house.
-
(i)
Permanent -
(ii)
Temporary
Q-5 The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha can be members.
-
(i)
250 -
(ii)
238 -
(iii)
240
Chapter-24 The Judiciary
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
-
1. The___________ is the highest court in Ind ia.
-
2. The courts at the district levels are known as _______
-
3. The judges of the Supreme Court retire at the age of ________
-
4. Judges of the High Court and the Supreme Court are appointed by the _______
-
5. Popular courts which decides cases at a much quicker speed are called _______
Q-2 State True or False
-
1. The Supreme court is the highest court of appeal in India.
-
2. Any citizen of India can approach a High Court directly if he feels that his Fundamental Rights are being violated.
-
3. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court is appointed by the Prime Minister.
-
4. Popular Courts which decide cases much quicker are called subordinate courts.
-
5. The total number of judges besides the Chief Justice cannot be more than 35.
Q-3 Answer the following questions in short:
-
1. Name the highest court of Justice in the country?
-
2. What are Lok Adalats?
-
3. What is the importance of courts in India?
-
4. Mention two qualifications needed for being the Judge of the Supreme Court?
Q-4 Answer the following questions in detail:
-
1. Why do we need the courts of Justice?
-
2. How are Lok Adalat useful?
-
3. How are the Judges of the Supreme Court appointed?
-
4. Mention some of the powers of the Supreme Court?
-
5. What is the difference between civil and criminal cases?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The High Court is the highest court of Justice at the level.
-
(i)
State -
(ii)
District
Q-2 Matters relating to violation of fundamental rights can be dealt with by ______
-
(i)
High Court
-
(ii)
the Governor
Q-3 The Chief Justice of a H igh Court is appointed by
-
(i)
The President
-
(ii)
the Governor
Q-4 The_________ is the highest court of appeal in India
-
(i)
Supreme Court -
(ii)
High Court
Chapter-25 Elements of Judicial Structure
Q-1 Fill in the blanks
-
1. The maintenance of law and order is the most important function of the__________
-
2. Police keeps a close watch on _________elements
-
3. The_________ cannot refuse to register the complaint.
-
4. The _____________at the District headquarters is an officer of the Indian Police services.
Q-2 Say if the following sentences are True or False:
-
1. The Supreme Court hears appeals against the courts.
-
2. FIR means First information Report.
-
3. Supreme Court hears the appeal of the one who breaks the rules.
-
4. Many criminal cases are settled out of court.
-
5. Murder is an example of a criminal case.
Q-3 Match the following columns
Q-4 Answer the following in detail:
-
1. What are civil and criminal cases?
-
2. Give two examples each of civil and criminal cases?
-
3. What is FIR?
-
4. Who is a public prosecutor?
Q-5 Answer the following questions:
-
1. What are the important functions of the Police?
-
2. What is the importance of FIR?
-
3. What is the role of a Public Prosecutor?
-
4. What are the Supreme Courts directions on the FIR?
Chapter-26 Social Justice and the Marginalised
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
-
1. The _____________Commission was concerned with the welfare of the Backward classes.
-
2. Weaker sections of the society who lives in tribal areas are called ________
-
3. The population of SCs according to 2001 census is ______
-
4. About 15% of the jobs under the government are reserved for the _______
-
5. Weaker sections of the society other than scheduled castes or scheduled tribes are called __________
Q-2 State True or False:
-
1. The Constitution of India makes untouchability an offence
-
2. The scheduled castes population in concentrated in Uttar Pradesh only.
-
3. 27% of the seats under the government has been reseNed for the scheduled tribes.
-
4. Articles 29 and 30 deals with safeguarding the rights of the minorities
-
5. According to 2001 census the percentage of scheduled tribes was 84.3%.
Q-3 Match the following:
Q-4 Answer the following questions in short:
-
1. What are the marginalized groups?
-
2. Who are scheduled tribes?
-
3. What was the population of scheduled castes according to 2001 census?
-
4. Define untouchability.
Q-5 Answer the following question in detail:
-
1. Explain the meaning of Social and Economic Justice?
-
2. Mention some of the Constitutional Provisions relating to SCs and STs?
-
3. What measures have been taken by the Government to promote the backward classes of the society.
-
4. What are the different forms of untouchability?
-
5. What steps have been taken by the government to eradicate untouchability?
Chapter-27 Economic Presence of the Government
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
-
1. _________serves many purposes at one and the same time.
-
2. Self employment was provided under the ___________yojna.
-
3._________ Scheme include Integrated Rural Development Programme.
-
4.______________ Plans are there for the economic development of the country.
Q-2 Match the following:
Q-3 State if the sentences are True or False:
-
1. Upto 2007 the Planning Commission has developed eleven five year plans.
-
2. Jawahar Gram Samridhi Vojna aimed at providing self-employment to the rural people.
-
3. Employment Assurance Scheme was launched in 2002-03.
-
4. Planning Commission was formed after the __________.
Q-4 Answer the following:
-
1. Why was there a need to set up the Planning Commission?
-
2. Define Planning Commission?
-
3. What steps have been taken by the government to improve the condition of the Indian agriculture?
-
4. Mention some of the programmes started by the government to reduce poverty in our country?
-
5. What efforts have been made by the government to reduce unemployment?