Question bank

Chapter-1   History: Our Past
Q-1

Match the following columns:
Q-2

Write True or False for each of the following statements.

(1) Herodotus was the inventor of the term History.

(2) Traveller's accounts are a part of literary sources.

(3) The Arthashastra was written by Kalidasa.

(4) The old buildings of historical importance are called monuments.

(5) History helps us to know about our future.

Q-3

Answer the following questions in brief:

(1) What is history?

(2) What are the two main sources of history?

(3) Name the place where the ancient paintings have been found.

(4) What is meant by secular literature?

(5) Who was Megasthenese? Name the account written by him. 

Q-4

Answer the following questions in detail:

(1) What is the difference between BC and AD?

(2) Discuss the effects of geography on the history of India.

(3) What is the meaning of periods of recorded history?

(4) Discuss in brief the sources for knowing the past.

(5) Why is it important to study history?

(6) How is religious literature different from secular literature?

Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 

'Abhigyan Shakuntalam' was written by:

(i)

Kalidasa

(ii)

Maharishi Valmiki

(iii)

Ved Vyasa

(iv)

Panini

Q-2 

Our two great epics are:

(i)

Puranas and Vedas

(ii)

Mahabharata and Jatakas

(iii)

Ramayana and Mahabharata

(iv)

Tripitakas and Jatakas

Chapter-2   The Earliest Societies
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
(a) Altamira caves are found in _______________.
(b) The Palaeolithic man first learnt to ____________.
(c) The Palaeolithic man was first a ____________.
(d) The tools of the Mesolithic Age were called _____________.

(e) The Palaeolithic man used to _______his dead.

Q-2 True or False:
(a) During the Palaeolithic Age man used fine tools made of metals.
(b) Humans were food gatherers during the Mesolithic Age.
(c) In the Palaeolithic Age man began to live in mud houses.
(d) Palaeolithic is a Greek word.
Q-3 One word answer:
(a) Period of man's history for which no written record is available.
(b) Scholars who study human race and societies.
(c) The early Stone Age when man led the life of a food gatherer and hunter.
(d) People who move with their belongings and animals from place to place and have no permanent home.
Q-4

Answer the following questions in short:

(1) Name the different periods of the Stone Age in their proper chronological order.

(2) What was man's first major discovery? What were its main uses?

(3) How did the Palaeolithic man discover fire?

(4) Why do we call the Palaeolithic man a food gatherer?

(5) Why is the Palaeolithic man called a nomad?

(6) What were the religious beliefs of the Palaeolithic man?

Q-5

Answer the following questions in detail:

(1) Describe the life of a Palaeolithic man.

(2) Write a brief note on the art and painting of Palaeolithic man.

(3) What do you know about the Mesolithic Age?

(4) How were microliths useful to Mesolithic man?

Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The main sites of Palaeolithic Age are _______.

(i)

Tanjore

(ii)

Kadur

(iii)

both of these
Q-2 Old stone implements have also been found in _________.

(i)

Bengal

(ii)

Gujarat

(iii)

Both of these
Q-3 Flake tools Like choppers and cleavers were made from the _______.

(i)

sharp pieces that broke off while shaping core tools

(ii)

stones

(iii)

metals
Q-4 ________ was a pear shape tool with sharp edges on the sides.

(i)

Cleaver

(ii)

Hand axe

(iii)

Chopper
Chapter-3   The First Farmers and Herders
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
(a) The first animal to be domesticated was the _____________.
(b) Baked vessels were necessary for storing _______________.
(c) Man changed from hunter to farmer during _____________.
(d) The man of Neolithic Age was afraid of ______________.

(e) The New Stone Age is known as the _________

Q-2 True or False:
(a) Man became a food producer in the New Stone Age.
(b) The tools of the Neolithic Man were of very poor quality.
(c) In the Chalcolithic stage, man used both stone and copper tools.
(d) The first metal to be discovered was bronze.
Q-3 One word answer:
(a) Growing of crops and plants.
(b) Using animals as domestic pets.
(c) Process of taming a population of animals or a species as a whole.
(d) Term used for the progress made by ancient man from nomadic to a settled agrarian life.
Q-4

Match the following columns correctly:
Q-5

Answer the following questions :

(1) How did man become a farmer from a hunter?

(2) What were the achievements of the Neolithic Age?

(3) What were the main changes in the Chalcolithic Age?

(4) What kind of work did people do in the Neolithic Age?

(5) How did farming and herding change man's life?

(6) How did people treat their dead in the Neolithic Age?

Q-6

Distinguish between :

(1) Palaeolithic Age and Neolithic Age

(2) Food gatherer and food producer

Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The first animal to be tamed was ___________.

(i)

the goat as we know today

(ii)

the dog as we know today

(iii)

the dog’s wild ancestor
Q-2 Which of these Is the correct order of what early man did?

(i)

skilled-gatherers → hunter → gatherers → herders

(ii)

hunter → gatherers skilled → gatherers → herders

(iii)

herders → skilled → gatherers → hunter→ gatherers
Q-3 Which was not a way of storing grains in the early days?

(i)

boxes

(ii)

Woven Baskets

(iii)

Clay pots
Q-4 Grains like wheat and barley have been found in _________.

(i)

Koldihwa

(ii)

Mahagara

(iii)

Mehrgarh
Chapter-4   The First Cities (Harappan Civilisation) (2500 BC – 1500 BC)
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
(a) The city of Harappa was situated in present _____________.
(b) The houses in Harappan cities were built of ________________.
(c) The grain was stored in the _________.
(d) The Indus Valley civilisation arose on the banks of the river ________________.

(e) The citadel belonged to the ____ part of Mohenjodaro.

Q-2 True or False:
(a) The earliest cities developed on the river banks.
(b) In 1930 the ruins of Mohenjodaro were discovered.
(c) The upper part of the Harappa city was built on a raised ground.
(d) A dockyard has been found at Lothal.

(e) All the people took bath in the Great Bath.

Q-3 One word answer:
(a) An object believed to protect one from evil influence.

(b) A fort like structure built on a raised platform.

(d) The lower area between hills with a river flowing through it.

(c) A place where ships are built, repaired and loaded and unloaded.

Q-4

Match the following columns:
Q-5

Answer the following questions :

(1) Why do we call the Harappan civilisation the first civilisation in India?

(2) Write a short note on the chief buildings in the citadel. 

(3) What were the main items of food of the Harappan people?

(4) When and where did the Harappan civilisation flourish?

(5) When did the earliest cities come into existence? Write the names of any five such cities.

(6) Describe the plan of the city of Mohenjodaro.

(7) Throw some light on the town planning of the Indus Valley people.

(8) What were the causes of the decline of the Harappan civilisation?

Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The Great Bath has been discovered in ___________.

(i)

Lothal

(ii)

Harappa

(iii)

Mohenjodaro
Q-2 Which of these groups of people did not usually live in cities, but the countryside?

(i)

rulers

(ii)

farmers and herders

(iii)

craftspersons
Q-3 The alloy of tin and _________ is called bronze.

(i)

zinc

(ii)

copper

(iii)

none of these
Q-4 The city of Lothal was situated beside a river which was a tributary of __________.

(i)

Ganga

(ii)

Sabarmati

(iii)

Narmada
Chapter-5   Different Ways of Life
Q-1

Match the following columns:
Q-2

Answer the following questions in short:

(1) Which period of Indian history do we call the Vedic Age and why?

(2) In what manner did the Aryans come into India?

(3) Why is the Early Vedic period also called the Rigvedic period?

(4) What were the two main occupations of the Rigvedic Aryans?

(5) What were the amusements of the early Aryans?

(6) What do you know about the dress of the early Aryans?

(7) What is the meaning of 'Ved'?

(8) Name the four Vedas and write one sentence about each of them.

Q-3

Answer the following questions in detail:

(1) Write an account of the Sabha and the Samiti.

(2) What was the position of women in the Rig Vedic society?

(3) Mention two forces of nature which were worshipped by the early Aryans.

(4) Describe the four classes into which the early Aryan society was divided into. 

(5) What were the main occupations of the Vedic people?

(6) What position did the women enjoy in the Vedic Age?

(7) How would you distinguish the Rigvedic civilisation from the Indus valley civilisation?

(8) Describe the social life of the Rigvedic people with particular reference to their social life, food, dress and amusements. 

Q-4 Fill in the blanks:
(a) Gold ornaments have been found in the ___________ settlement.
(b) Copper was found in the mines of ___________.
(c) The early Aryans lived in ____________.
(d) The Gayatri Mantra is related with ___________.

(f) The ____ was the assembly of the selected people of the whole tribe.

(g) The Aryans first settled in ___________

(h) The ____ is concerned with upasana communication with God.

Q-5 True or False:
(a) The Rigveda is the earliest record of the Aryan culture.
(b) The Aryans in the early Vedic period used iron ploughs.
(c) The Rigvedic Aryans did not worship idols.
(d) The Vedic literature was written in Vedic Sanskrit.

(e) There was caste system during the early Aryan period.

(f) The Aryans worshipped the nature gods.

Q-6 One word answer:
(a) A popular assembly of the whole tribe in the Rigvedic period.
(b) The assembly of elders in the Rigvedic period.
(c) The eldest male member in the family.
(d) The head of the village in the Rigvedic period.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The Ghoda is a tributary of the _________.

(i)

Ganga

(ii)

Narmada

(iii)

Krishna
Q-2 Brahmagiri is a site in modem __________.

(i)

Andhra Pradesh

(ii)

Kerala

(iii)

Uttar Pradesh
Q-3 Which of these was not a category of people in the society?

(i)

Shudra

(ii)

Brahmin

(iii)

Raja
Q-4 The _____ lays down the procedures for various ceremonies and rituals.

(i)

Rigveda

(ii)

Samveda

(iii)

Yajurveda
Chapter-6   Early States
Q-1

Match the following columns:
Q-2

Answer the following questions in detail:

(1) State the main differences between a republic and a kingdom in ancient India.

(2) What is meant by the Gurukul system?

(3) Describe the kingdom of Vaishali.

Q-3

Answer the following questions in short:

(1) Name the two main sources of information of the period between 1600 BC and 400 BC.

(2) Mention the names of one ruler each of Videha and Magadha.

(3) How do you define the term 'Janapada'?

(4) Why is Vaishali known as an important centre of pilgrimage?

(5) Where was the Magadha empire established?

Q-4

Name each of the following:

(1) Four important janapadas of the 6th century BC. 

(2) Three centres of learning, which acquired prominence in the period from 6th to 4th century BC.

(3) Three main items of trade between Magadha and the rest of the world.

(4) Name three ancient centres of education.

Q-5 Fill in the blanks:
(a) In the Gurukul system, a child lived with his _________________.
(b) Mahajanapada of Avanti was in ______________.
(c) The two great religions started from ____________.
(d) Gandhara is modern day ____________.

(e) Buddhist and Jain literature shows that around 600 BC, the whole of Northern India was divided into ___ kingdoms. 

Q-6 True or False:
(a) Around 6th century BC, there were 16 Mahajanapadas in the valley of Ganga.
(b) A monarchial mahajanapada was ruled by elected people.
(c) The grihastha stage was for meditation.
(d) Sakyas of Vaishali was a republic.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The ‘Ashvamedha’ was the sacrifice of ________.

(i)

horse

(ii)

cow

(iii)

bull
Q-2 The two words that constitute the word ‘janapada’ mean:

(i)

citizens and foot

(ii)

woman and foot

(iii)

men and hand
Q-3 Which of these was usually fortified?

(i)

all cities in ‘mahajanapadas’

(ii)

all cities in ‘janapadas’

(iii)

capital cities of ‘mahajanapadas’
Q-4 One-sixth of the produce was taken as tax from __________.

(i)

farmers

(ii)

hunter-gatherers

(iii)

crafts-persons
Chapter-7   The Earth in the Solar System
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
(a)_______________ is the brightest planet in the solar system.
(b) The second largest planet of solar system is _____________.
(c) ___________is a group of seven stars.
(d) Meteor fragments that reach the ground are known as ___________.

(e) Saturn looks beautiful because of its ________ around it.

Q-2 True or False:
(a) The Sun is the ultimate source of heat and light for the solar system.
(b) Mercury is the brightest planet in the solar system.
(c) Stars have their own light and heat.
(d) Halley's comet visits the Earth regularly and it is visible once in 76 years.

(e) Planets have their own heat and light.

Q-3 One word answer:

(b) The Sun and its family of planets, satellites, etc.

(a) A group of stars having a certain form and shape.
(c) A heavenly body that revolves around a planet.
(d) A swarm of small rock pieces scattered between Mars and Jupiter.
Q-4

Answer in one word or one sentence.

(1) What do we call a group of stars forming a definite pattern?

(2) Define a meteorite.

(3) Define the universe.

(4) What do you mean by the solar system?

Q-5

Answer the following questions in short:

(1) What are 'celestial bodies'?

(2) What do you mean by 'shooting stars'?

(3) What do you mean by 'Asteroids'?

(4) Give a brief description about 'Meteoroids'.

(5) What do you understand by a 'Comet'?

Q-6

Answer the following questions in detail:

(1) What do you mean by a 'Galaxy'? Give a brief description of the Milky way Galaxy.

(2) Explain the phases of Moon with a suitable diagram.

(3) Describe the concept of a constellation.

(4) Why is the Earth considered a unique planet?

Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 _______ are the twinkling objects in the sky.

(i)

Crystals

(ii)

Stars

(iii)

Satellites
Q-2 The Sun, the moon and all those objects shining in the night sky are called __________.

(i)

satellites

(ii)

celestial bodies

(iii)

constellation
Q-3 Our sun belongs to a galaxy called the _________ Galaxy

(i)

constellation

(ii)

Milky Way

(iii)

none of these
Q-4 The ______ is the centre of the solar system.

(i)

Mercury

(ii)

Venus

(iii)

Sun
Chapter-8   Globe: Latitudes and Longitudes
Q-1

Answer the following questions in short:

(1) What do you mean by Indian Standard Time?

(2) What do you understand by time zones?

(3) Give any two uses of latitudes.

(4) What is the significance of the Equator?

(5) What is meant by Meridian?

Q-2

Answer the following questions in detail:

(1) Give details about the lines of latitude. 

(2) How can we locate a place on the globe with the help of lines of longitudes and latitude? Explain it with a suitable diagram.

(3) Describe the heat zones of the Earth with the help of a diagram.

(4) Why has 82°30'E longitude been selected as the Standard Meridian for India?

Q-3

Answer in one word or one sentence:

(2) What is the Equator?

(3) Name the longitude on which International Date line is located.

(1) What do you mean by local time?

(4) What is a globe?

(5) Why does Russia have 11 time zones?

Q-4

Distinguish between:

(1) Local Time and Standard Time

(2) Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn

Q-5 Fill in the blanks:
(a)_________________ divides the Earth into northern hemisphere and southern hemisphere.
(b) The longitude considered as the Standard Meridian in India is ___________.
(c) The Earth is divided into_________ time zones.
(d) Due to its vastness, Russia has__________ time zones.

(e) 66 ½° Sis known as __________

Q-6 True or False:
(a) 82° 30' E is selected as the Standard Meridian in India.
(b) The Meridians of Longitudes have 370 lines.
(c) Each time zone cover 15° of longitudes.
(d) The North Temperate zone lies between the Arctic circle and the North frigid zone.

(e) In the Southern Hemishere, the parallel of 23½ 0 S is called the Tropic of Capricorn.

Q-7 One word answer:
(a) Angular distance of a place north or south of equator.
(b) Angular distance of a place east or west of prime meridian.

(c) The 0° longitude passing through Greenwich in England.

(d) Two fixed points on the Earth which are tips of the axis of the Earth.
Q-8

Match the columns correctly:
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 What is a globe?

(i)

Earth

(ii)

True model of the earth

(iii)

none of these
Q-2 Which of the following are shown on the globe in their true size?

(i)

Countries

(ii)

Continents

(iii)

both of these
Q-3 What is called a needle fixed through the globe in a tilted manner?

(i)

Orbit

(ii)

Axis

(iii)

Longitude
Q-4 What divides the earth into two equal parts?

(i)

Tropic of Cancer

(ii)

Tropic of Capricorn

(iii)

Equator
Chapter-9   Motions of the Earth
Q-1

Answer the following questions in short:

(1) What do you mean by the circle of illumination?

(2) When do we observe a leap year?

(3) How are days and nights formed?

(4) Give any three effects of rotation.

(5) Give the importance of inclination of the Earth's axis.

(6) Why is there no season on equator?

Q-2

Answer the following questions in detail:

(1) Give a description of summer solstice.

(2) Describe equinoxes.

(3) What factors are responsible for change in seasons?

(4) Why are days longer than nights during the summer season?

(5) What are the effects of revolution?

Q-3

Distinguish between:

(1) Rotation and revolution

(2) Summer solstice and winter solstice.

(3) Perihelion and aphelion

Q-4 Fill in the blanks:

(a) Winter solstice falls on _________

(b) Equinoxes mean ____________

(c) Days and nights are equal on _____________

(e) Leap year has ______ days.

(f) Australia celebrates its Christmas during ____ season.

(d) 21st March marks the beginning of ______ in northern hemisphere.

Q-5 True or False:
(a) The southern hemisphere is tilted toward the Sun during winter solstice.
(b) Seasons are caused due to rotation.
(c) A leap year observes 366 days.

(d) 21 March is called the Autumn equinox.

(e) When it is summer in Australia and South Africa, it is winter in India.

Q-6

Give answer in one word or in one sentence.

(a) Name the two motions of the Earth.

(b) What do you mean by revolution?

(c) At what angle is the axis inclined to the Earth's orbital plane?

(d) What do you mean by the word 'Solstice'?

(e) When does the Sun shines vertically on the equator?

(f) What is dawn?

Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The Earth has ______ types of motions.

(i)

two

(ii)

three

(iii)

four
Q-2 The Earth rotates on its ________.

(i)

equator

(ii)

axis

(iii)

longitude
Q-3 The Earth rotates on its axis once in _________ hours.

(i)

24

(ii)

48

(iii)

72
Q-4 ________ are the divisions of the year according to regular or constant changes in the weather.

(i)

Climates

(ii)

Seasons

(iii)

none of these
Chapter-10   The Government
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
(a) The government is one of the most important ______________ of a country.
(b) The Constitution is in the form of a ____________.
(c) The____________ passes the laws.
(d) The laws are put into effect by the ____________.
Q-2 True or False:
(a) A government is not necessary for a country.
(b) The judiciary makes sure that laws are enforced properly.
(c) A citizen of 18 years has a right to vote.
(d) Democracy is the government of the people, by the people and for the people.
Q-3 One word answer:
(a) A system or policy by which a political unit is governed.
(b) A person or group having administrative or managerial authority in an organisation.
(c) The judicial branch of government i.e., the Supreme court, the High courts and all the lower courts.
(d) Supremacy of authority or rule as exercised by a sovereign or sovereign state.
Q-4

Match the following columns correctly:
Q-5

Answer the following questions:

(1) Why do we need a government?

(2) What can be the basis for classifying a government?

(3) What is meant by universal adult franchise?

(4) Mention any two functions of a government.

(5) What are the main characteristics of a democracy?

Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Forms of _________ refer to the institutions and the working of those institutions.

(i)

government

(ii)

schools

(iii)

colleges
Q-2 ________ is necessary to organise people.

(i)

Prejudice

(ii)

Government

(iii)

none of these
Q-3 The __________ passes laws.

(i)

legislature

(ii)

executive

(iii)

judiciary
Q-4 The laws are put into effect by the _______.

(i)

Judiciary

(ii)

Executive

(iii)

legislature
Chapter-11   Local Government (Section-I) The Panchayati Raj (The Three-Tier System)
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
(a) The Panchayati Raj is a system of local government in the __________ areas.
(b) Everyone above the age of 18 in a village is a member of ___________.
(c)_____________ of the total number of seats in a Gram Panchayat are reserved for women.
(d) The highest institution of Panchayati Raj is ___________.

(e) The Secretary is a ____ employee.

Q-2 True or False:
(a) The Panchayati Raj system is a two-tier system.
(b) The members of a Nyaya Panchayat are also the members of the Gram Sabha.
(c) The Zila Parishad is the second institution of the Panchayati Raj.
(d) The Block Samiti is the second institution of the Panchayati Raj.

(e) The Zila Parishad makes plans for the development of a block.

Q-3 One word answer:
(a) An election held before the completion of the stipulated term of the government.
(b) Equal treatment of all people in the eyes of law.
(c) A system of discrimination on the basis of skin colour.
(d) Make less severe or harsh.
Q-4

Match the following columns correctly:
Q-5

Answer the questions given below:

(1) Describe the structure of the Panchayati Raj system. 

(2) How is a Block Samiti formed?

(3) How is the Zila Parishad formed?

(4) What are the functions of the Zila Parishad?

(5) Mention the significance of the Panchayati Raj.

Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 There is _______ Central Government for the whole country.

(i)

one

(ii)

no

(iii)

both of these
Q-2 There are _______ Union Territories in India.

(i)

seven

(ii)

eight

(iii)

nine
Q-3 The members of a Gram Panchayat are elected for a term of __________ years.

(i)

three

(ii)

four

(iii)

five
Q-4 The Panchayati Raj is a _______ system.

(i)

two-tier

(ii)

three-tier

(iii)

four-tier